A nurse is caring for a client who inquires about a cervical cap for contraception.The nurse should identify that which of the following manifestations is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap?
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
History of thrombophlebitis.
History of toxic shock syndrome.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is not directly related to the use of a cervical cap. The main concern with a cervical cap is infection, but MRSA history alone doesn't make it a contraindication for this form of contraception.
Choice B rationale
History of thrombophlebitis is more of a concern with hormonal contraceptives due to the risk of blood clots. A cervical cap does not involve hormones, so this condition is not a direct contraindication.
Choice C rationale
History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap because the cap can increase the risk of developing TSS again. TSS is associated with prolonged use of barrier contraceptives, which can create an environment that fosters the growth of bacteria responsible for TSS.
Choice D rationale
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not a direct contraindication for the use of a cervical cap. The concern with diabetes is often related to blood glucose control and potential infections, but it doesn't specifically contraindicate the use of cervical caps.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
"Decreased BP.”. This is correct because hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to dehydration, which in turn can cause hypotension (decreased blood pressure).
Choice B rationale
"WBC count 15,000/mm³ (5,000 to 15,000/mm³).”. This is incorrect because while WBC count can be elevated due to stress or infection, it is not a primary manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Choice C rationale
"Pruritus.”. This is incorrect because pruritus is not commonly associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. It is more likely related to other conditions like cholestasis of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
"Hemoglobin 18 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL).”. This is incorrect because an elevated hemoglobin level is not a direct manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum, although dehydration can potentially concentrate blood components and slightly elevate hemoglobin.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The nurse should prepare to reinforce teaching with the client about a low-sodium diet with a prescription of nifedipine.
So, the correct options are:
- C. low-sodium diet
- A. nifedipine
Explanation:
- Low-sodium diet:
- The client has a history of obesity and hypertension, which are both managed effectively with a low-sodium diet. Reducing sodium intake can help lower blood pressure and reduce the risk of complications.
- Nifedipine:
- The client has been prescribed nifedipine, which is a medication used to treat high blood pressure. This aligns with her history of hypertension and the current elevated blood pressure readings.
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