A nurse is caring for a client who is dying of metastatic breast cancer. She has a prescription for an opioid pain medication PRN. The nurse is concerned that administering a dose of pain medication might hasten the client's death. Which of the following ethical principles should the nurse use to support the decision not to administer the medication?
Fidelity
Veracity
Utilitarianism
Non-maleficence
The Correct Answer is D
A. Fidelity: Fidelity refers to the duty to fulfill one's commitments and obligations. While important in nursing practice, fidelity is not directly applicable to the decision not to administer pain medication in this scenario.
B. Veracity: Veracity refers to truthfulness and honesty in communication. While it is important for the nurse to communicate honestly with the client and their family about the risks and benefits of pain management, the decision not to administer pain medication is primarily based on the principle of non-maleficence.
C. Utilitarianism: Utilitarianism is an ethical theory that emphasizes the greatest good for the greatest number of people. While pain relief may contribute to the overall well-being of the client, the decision not to administer pain medication in this scenario is more closely aligned with the principle of non-maleficence, as it focuses on avoiding harm to the individual client.
D. Non-maleficence: Non-maleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the duty to do no harm. In this situation, the nurse's primary concern is to avoid causing harm to the client. Administering pain medication to relieve suffering, even if it might hasten death, aligns with the principle of non-maleficence because the intent is to alleviate suffering and provide comfort to the dying client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Blood: The purpose of a stool guaiac test is to detect the presence of occult (hidden) blood in the stool. This test is commonly used to screen for gastrointestinal bleeding, which may indicate various conditions such as peptic ulcers, colorectal cancer, inflammatory bowel disease, or hemorrhoids. The guaiac test relies on the chemical reaction between guaiac resin and the heme component of hemoglobin in blood, resulting in a color change when blood is present in the stool.
B. Parasites: Stool tests for parasites typically involve examining stool samples under a microscope to identify the presence of parasitic organisms, such as protozoa or helminths. These tests are used to diagnose parasitic infections, such as giardiasis, cryptosporidiosis, or intestinal worms, rather than detecting blood in the stool.
C. Steatorrhea: Stool tests for steatorrhea assess the presence of excess fat in the stool, which may indicate malabsorption disorders, pancreatic insufficiency, or other gastrointestinal conditions affecting fat digestion and absorption. These tests involve analyzing stool samples for the presence of undigested fat globules rather than detecting blood.
D. Bacteria: Stool cultures are used to detect the presence of pathogenic bacteria in the stool, which may indicate bacterial infections such as Salmonella, Shigella, or Campylobacter. These tests involve culturing stool samples on specific media to identify bacterial pathogens rather than detecting blood. Stool guaiac tests specifically target the detection of occult blood and are not designed to identify bacteria in the stool.
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Rotavirus (RV) vaccine is an oral live attenuated preparation designated strictly for young infants to prevent severe gastroenteritis. The standard administration window closes completely at 8 months and 0 days of age. Administering this vaccine to a 1-year-old child is clinically inappropriate and contraindicated due to insufficient safety data.
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is a recombinant preparation formulated to protect against oncogenic viral strains linked to cervical and anogenital carcinomas. Routine administration is universally deferred until late childhood or early adolescence, beginning between ages 9 and 12. It is not indicated or immunologically useful for a 1-year-old patient.
C. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine is a live attenuated viral immunization routinely scheduled between 12 and 15 months of age. Administering this vaccine at 1 year of age is clinically correct because the infant is biologically capable of mounting an adequate antibody response. This timing prevents outbreaks of these highly contagious diseases.
D. Varicella (VAR) vaccine contains live attenuated varicella-zoster virus designed to stimulate adaptive immunity against chickenpox and its neurological or systemic sequelae. The initial dose is officially scheduled for pediatric patients between 12 and 15 months of age. A 1-year-old child must receive this vaccine to optimize primary infectious defense.
E. Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine represents a combined toxoid and inactivated subunit series protecting against severe bacterial pathogens. The fourth dose is normally scheduled between 15 and 18 months of age. However, clinical guidelines permit early administration at 12 months provided at least 6 months have elapsed since dose 3.
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