A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
Rash
Dyspnea
Polyuria
Bradycardia
The Correct Answer is D
A. Rash: A rash is not a typical manifestation of digoxin toxicity and is more often linked to allergic reactions or dermatologic conditions. While any new rash should be assessed, it does not specifically signal excessive digoxin levels.
B. Dyspnea: Shortness of breath can occur in many cardiac or pulmonary conditions, especially heart failure, but it is not a primary indicator of digoxin toxicity. Dyspnea alone does not reliably reflect rising digoxin concentrations.
C. Polyuria: Increased urine output is usually associated with diuretic use or endocrine disorders rather than digoxin. Digoxin does not stimulate urine production, so polyuria would not indicate toxicity.
D. Bradycardia: Digoxin slows conduction through the AV node, and excessive levels can significantly depress heart rate. A notable drop in pulse can signal toxicity and requires immediate intervention to prevent dangerous arrhythmias.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Absent pedal pulse: Deep vein thrombosis affects the venous system, so arterial pulses typically remain palpable. An absent pulse is more indicative of arterial occlusion rather than DVT. Monitoring pulses is important, but this finding does not confirm DVT.
B. Numbness of the affected extremity: Numbness is usually associated with nerve compression or neuropathy, not DVT. While swelling from a clot may occasionally cause mild pressure on nerves, sensory changes are not a primary diagnostic indicator of venous thrombosis.
C. Warmth of the affected extremity: Localized warmth, along with redness, swelling, and tenderness, is a classic sign of DVT due to inflammation and venous obstruction. This finding warrants prompt assessment and intervention to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism.
D. Muscle spasms: Muscle cramps or spasms may occur for various reasons, including electrolyte imbalances, but they are not specific indicators of DVT. Relying on spasms alone could delay appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While HPV vaccines target the most oncogenic strains, they do not provide 100% protection against all high-risk viral types that can lead to malignancy. Clinical guidelines mandate that vaccinated individuals continue routine screening because secondary prevention remains necessary to identify early dysplastic changes. Relying solely on primary prevention via immunization significantly increases the risk of undiagnosed cervical intraepithelial neoplasia.
B. Initiating cervical cancer screening at age 40 is a direct violation of evidence-based preventative health protocols. Current standards recommend that cytological screening begins at age 21 to detect precancerous lesions that are most common in early adulthood. Delaying the first screen until 40 would result in a failure to identify and treat high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions during their most treatable stages.
C. Most clinical guidelines allow for the cessation of cervical cancer screening at age 65 for individuals who have had a series of consistently negative prior results. Continuing these invasive tests indefinitely in low-risk geriatric populations does not offer a statistically significant reduction in mortality. Screening beyond the recommended age limit can lead to unnecessary psychological distress and complications from follow-up diagnostic procedures.
D. For individuals aged 30 to 65, the preferred screening strategy is co-testing with both a Pap test and an HPV DNA test every 5 years. This combined molecular and cytological approach maximizes the detection of high-risk human papillomavirus and abnormal cellular morphology. Utilizing this 5-year interval provides a high level of diagnostic sensitivity while reducing the frequency of over-treatment for transient infections.
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