A nurse is caring for a school-age child in the pediatric unit.

Exhibits

Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is []

Nephrotic Syndrome: The child presents with periorbital and abdominal edema, foamy dark-colored urine, significant proteinuria (24 mg/dL), hypoalbuminemia (1.4 g/dL), and hyperlipidemia (cholesterol 465 mg/dL), all of which are classic indicators of nephrotic syndrome. The elevated ESR and low sodium further support an inflammatory renal process with fluid retention.
Chronic Kidney Disease: CKD is a long-term progressive decline in kidney function. This child shows acute findings with severe proteinuria and low albumin, consistent with nephrotic syndrome, not CKD.
Acute Glomerulonephritis: Usually presents with hematuria (cola-colored urine), hypertension, and mild proteinuria. This client has severe proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema, which are more typical of nephrotic syndrome.
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome: Commonly follows a gastrointestinal illness and includes anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury. This child’s platelets are elevated, not low, and there's no history of diarrheal illness, making HUS unlikely.
Encourage a low sodium diet: Sodium restriction helps manage fluid retention and edema which are key concerns in nephrotic syndrome. It also prevents worsening of ascites and periorbital swelling.
Administer oral corticosteroids: This is the first-line treatment for idiopathic nephrotic syndrome, especially in children. Corticosteroids reduce glomerular permeability, limiting protein loss in the urine and promoting remission.
Initiate peritoneal dialysis: Dialysis is only indicated in severe renal failure, which this child does not have. There’s no indication of uremia or electrolyte crisis, so dialysis is not appropriate at this stage.

Intake and output: Essential for assessing fluid balance. Children with nephrotic syndrome may retain fluid or have decreased urine output, making I&O a crucial measure.
Daily weight: This is the most accurate way to track fluid retention or loss. Daily weight is important for evaluating response to treatment, especially as edema resolves.

Head circumference: This is monitored in infants and toddlers, especially to assess for hydrocephalus or growth delays. It is not relevant for a school-age child with kidney issues.

HbA1C: A measure of long-term blood glucose control, used for diagnosing and managing diabetes. Has no relevance in the diagnosis or management of nephrotic syndrome.
Urine specific gravity: While useful in initial diagnosis (and already elevated), it is not the best indicator of ongoing progress. Daily weight and I&O are more practical and reliable for assessing edema and treatment response.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. "You should take a second dose if there is no relief within fifteen minutes after the initial dose." The second dose of sumatriptan should not be taken sooner than 2 hours after the first dose if there is no relief or if the migraine returns. Taking it too soon increases the risk of adverse effects.
B. "You may experience low blood pressure while taking this medication." Sumatriptan more commonly causes hypertension, not hypotension. It can cause vasoconstriction, which may elevate blood pressure and poses risks, especially in clients with cardiovascular disease.
C. "You should have complete relief in six hours after taking this medication." Relief from sumatriptan is often experienced within 1–2 hours after administration. While not all clients achieve complete relief, the medication acts quickly, and six hours is not the expected timeframe.
D. “You may experience muscle cramps as a potential adverse effect of the medication." Muscle cramps or tightness in the chest, neck, or limbs can occur due to vasoconstriction caused by sumatriptan. This is a known side effect and should be reported if severe or persistent.

A. "Morphine 3.0 mg sub q every 4 hr PRN for pain." B. "Morphine 3 mg subcutaneous every 4 hr PRN for pain." C. "Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr PRN for pain." D. "Morphine 3 mg SQ every 4 hr PRN for pain."

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "Morphine 3.0 mg sub q every 4 hr PRN for pain." Including a trailing zero (3.0 mg) is considered unsafe and is discouraged in medication documentation. It increases the risk of a tenfold overdose if the decimal is missed.
B. "Morphine 3 mg subcutaneous every 4 hr PRN for pain." This entry uses the correct dosage format without a trailing zero, the full term "subcutaneous" instead of abbreviations, and proper medical terminology. It adheres to safe documentation practices as per The Joint Commission guidelines.
C. "Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr PRN for pain." The abbreviation “SC” is considered unsafe and prone to misinterpretation. Also, "q" for "every" is discouraged in clinical documentation due to potential misreading and error.
D. "Morphine 3 mg SQ every 4 hr PRN for pain." The abbreviation “SQ” can be misinterpreted or mistaken for “5 every” or other terms. Safe practice requires spelling out “subcutaneous” to prevent errors in medication administration.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic migraines about a new prescription for sumatriptan. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the nurse make in the medical record?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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