A nurse is caring for an older adult client who reports vaginal dryness and itching. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

"These discomforts should decrease with time."

"Women your age experience thickening of the vaginal tissue."

"Your symptoms are likely due to decreasing estrogen levels."

"You should avoid intercourse to prevent injury to your vagina."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

C. It acknowledges the client's symptoms and provides a likely explanation related to hormonal changes associated with aging. It opens the door for further discussion and potential interventions to address the underlying cause.
A. This response dismisses the client's symptoms without addressing the underlying cause or providing potential solutions.
B. The opposite tends to occur with age – vaginal tissue can become thinner and drier due to decreasing estrogen levels, leading to symptoms like vaginal dryness and itching.
D. While avoiding intercourse may be recommended in certain situations, such as if there is discomfort or pain, it does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Additionally, it may not be necessary if appropriate treatments are pursued to alleviate vaginal dryness and itching.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Ondansetron is a commonly used medication for preventing nausea and vomiting induced by chemotherapy. It belongs to a class of drugs called serotonin receptor antagonists, which work by blocking serotonin receptors in the brain and gastrointestinal tract, thereby reducing the sensation of nausea and the urge to vomit. Ondansetron is often administered prior to chemotherapy to help prevent these side effects.
A. Diphenhydramine works by blocking histamine receptors in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. However, it is not commonly used as a first-line antiemetic for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
C. Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant and is not used specifically for preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
D. Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid medication that has anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant effects.

A. Initiate IV fluid replacement. B. Measure the client's urinary output. C. Administer insulin. D. Teach the client about manifestations of HHS

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Initiate IV fluid replacement is the highest priority intervention. HHS is characterized by severe dehydration due to osmotic diuresis resulting from hyperglycemia. IV fluid replacement is essential to correct dehydration and restore intravascular volume, which can help improve tissue perfusion and prevent further complications.
B. Monitoring urinary output is important in assessing renal function and response to fluid replacement therapy. However, it is not the highest priority intervention.
C. While insulin therapy is an essential part of managing hyperglycemia in HHS, it is not the highest priority intervention at the immediate onset of HHS.

D. Patient education about the manifestations and management of HHS is important for long-term management and prevention of recurrence. However, it is not the highest priority when the client is experiencing an acute episode of HHS.

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A nurse is caring for an older adult client who reports vaginal dryness and itching. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer prior to chemotherapy?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new onset of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS). Which of the following interventions by the nurse is the highest priority?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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