A nurse is collecting data from a client who has venous insufficiency. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Thickened toenails
Shiny, thin skin on the lower extremities
Dusky, red color of the feet when dangling
Pitting edema
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason : Thickened toenails are often associated with fungal infections and are not a direct symptom of venous insufficiency. However, they can appear in patients with chronic venous insufficiency due to poor circulation that affects the health of the toenails.
Choice B reason : Shiny, thin skin on the lower extremities is more characteristic of arterial insufficiency, where there is a reduction in blood flow and oxygen to the tissues. In venous insufficiency, the skin may instead appear thickened and discolored due to stasis and buildup of hemosiderin from the breakdown of red blood cells.
Choice C reason : A dusky, red color of the feet when dangling can be a sign of dependent rubor, which is associated with arterial insufficiency. This occurs when there is a severe decrease in arterial blood flow to the lower extremities. Venous insufficiency may cause a different color change, typically a brownish discoloration due to hemosiderin deposition.
Choice D reason : Pitting edema is a hallmark sign of venous insufficiency. It occurs due to the accumulation of fluid in the tissues, which is a result of increased pressure in the veins. This pressure causes fluid to leak into the surrounding tissues, leading to swelling that retains an indentation when pressed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason : This statement is incorrect because neither heparin nor warfarin dissolves clots. They prevent the formation of new clots and the growth of existing clots.
Choice B reason : This statement is not accurate. Heparin and warfarin do not enhance each other's effects. They work in different pathways of the clotting cascade. Heparin acts quickly, whereas warfarin takes several days to reach therapeutic levels.
Choice C reason : While seeking clarification from a provider is a part of good nursing practice, it is not the most informative response for the client. The nurse should provide education based on their knowledge and available information.
Choice D reason : This is the correct response. Heparin acts quickly and is used to stabilize the patient while waiting for warfarin to reach therapeutic levels, which is monitored by the international normalized ratio (INR) and usually takes several days.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason : Epinephrine is an adrenergic agonist primarily used in the management of cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis, and severe asthma attacks. It is not used to reverse the effects of warfarin overdose. Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and epinephrine has no role in this mechanism.
Choice B reason : Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin toxicity. Warfarin works by inhibiting the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. In the event of an overdose, vitamin K is administered to reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin and restore the clotting factor levels to normal. The administration can be oral or intravenous, depending on the severity of the overdose and the urgency of the situation.
Choice C reason : Atropine is an anticholinergic drug used to treat bradycardia (slow heart rate) and as an antidote for organophosphate poisoning. It does not have a role in reversing warfarin overdose as it does not affect the clotting cascade or vitamin K metabolism.
Choice D reason : Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, another anticoagulant, but not warfarin. Protamine sulfate binds to heparin, forming a stable complex and neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Since warfarin's mechanism of action is different from heparin's, protamine is not effective in reversing warfarin toxicity.
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