A 46-year-old African American man is in an outpatient clinic for a physical examination. His blood pressure (BP) is 126 mm Hg, his body mass index (BMI) is 24, and he reports no previous medical problems. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Schedule his next appointment for 1 year from now.
Provide information for a weight loss plan that includes increasing physical activity.
Provide information about how to reduce risk factors of hypertension.
Schedule an appointment for a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Scheduling the next appointment for 1 year from now is a standard practice for patients who are considered to be in good health and have no immediate medical concerns. Given the patient's normal BP and BMI, along with no reported medical problems, this would typically be an appropriate action. However, it is essential to consider the patient's age and race, as African American men are at a higher risk for certain conditions, such as prostate cancer, which may warrant more frequent monitoring.
Choice B reason: While providing information for a weight loss plan that includes increasing physical activity is generally beneficial, it may not be necessary for this patient. His BMI is 24, which falls within the normal range (18.5-24.9), indicating that he is not overweight. Therefore, unless the patient expresses a desire to lose weight or improve fitness, this action might not be a priority.
Choice C reason:Offering information on reducing risk factors for hypertension is always a positive step in preventive healthcare. However, the patient's BP is 126 mm Hg, which is considered a normal reading (normal BP range is 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg). Therefore, while education on maintaining a healthy lifestyle is valuable, it may not be the most critical action for this visit.
Choice D reason:Scheduling a PSA test is recommended for African American men starting at age 45 due to their increased risk of prostate cancer. The PSA test measures the level of prostate-specific antigen in the blood, which can be an indicator of prostate cancer. Given the patient's demographic, this proactive screening measure is advisable, despite the absence of symptoms or previous medical problems.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: The PR interval, which is the time from the onset of atrial depolarization (beginning of the P wave) to the onset of ventricular depolarization (beginning of the QRS complex), normally ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. A PR interval of 0.15 second is within the normal range and does not indicate an acute myocardial infarction.
Choice B reason: The QT interval represents the total time for ventricular depolarization and repolarization. The normal QT interval varies based on heart rate and gender but is typically less than half of the R-R interval in a normal heart rhythm. Therefore, a QT interval equal to the R-R interval is abnormally prolonged, which may suggest other conditions but is not a specific indicator of acute myocardial infarction.
Choice C reason: The QRS complex reflects ventricular depolarization and normally ranges from 0.06 to 0.10 seconds. A QRS interval of 0.08 second is within the normal range and does not suggest an acute myocardial infarction.
Choice D reason: ST segment elevation is a critical finding in the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. The ST segment should be at the isoelectric line; elevation above this line is indicative of myocardial injury and is a key diagnostic criterion for ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). An elevated ST segment is often seen in the early stages of an acute myocardial infarction and requires immediate medical attention.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason : The statement that warfarin dissolves clots in the bloodstream is incorrect. Warfarin does not dissolve existing clots. Instead, it is an anticoagulant that works by decreasing the production of certain clotting factors in the blood, which helps prevent the formation of new clots.
Choice B reason : This statement is not accurate regarding the action of warfarin. Warfarin does not affect the electrical impulses of the heart. Medications that slow the response of the ventricles to fast atrial impulses are typically antiarrhythmic drugs, not anticoagulants like warfarin.
Choice C reason : This is the correct statement. Warfarin is prescribed for clients with atrial fibrillation to reduce the risk of stroke. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can then travel to the brain, causing a stroke. Warfarin's anticoagulant effect helps to prevent these clots from forming.
Choice D reason : Warfarin does not help maintain a normal heart rhythm. It is not an antiarrhythmic drug but an anticoagulant. The purpose of warfarin in atrial fibrillation is to prevent stroke by reducing the risk of clot formation, not to correct the heart rhythm.
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