A 46-year-old African American man is in an outpatient clinic for a physical examination. His blood pressure (BP) is 126 mm Hg, his body mass index (BMI) is 24, and he reports no previous medical problems. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Schedule his next appointment for 1 year from now.
Provide information for a weight loss plan that includes increasing physical activity.
Provide information about how to reduce risk factors of hypertension.
Schedule an appointment for a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Scheduling the next appointment for 1 year from now is a standard practice for patients who are considered to be in good health and have no immediate medical concerns. Given the patient's normal BP and BMI, along with no reported medical problems, this would typically be an appropriate action. However, it is essential to consider the patient's age and race, as African American men are at a higher risk for certain conditions, such as prostate cancer, which may warrant more frequent monitoring.
Choice B reason: While providing information for a weight loss plan that includes increasing physical activity is generally beneficial, it may not be necessary for this patient. His BMI is 24, which falls within the normal range (18.5-24.9), indicating that he is not overweight. Therefore, unless the patient expresses a desire to lose weight or improve fitness, this action might not be a priority.
Choice C reason:Offering information on reducing risk factors for hypertension is always a positive step in preventive healthcare. However, the patient's BP is 126 mm Hg, which is considered a normal reading (normal BP range is 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg). Therefore, while education on maintaining a healthy lifestyle is valuable, it may not be the most critical action for this visit.
Choice D reason:Scheduling a PSA test is recommended for African American men starting at age 45 due to their increased risk of prostate cancer. The PSA test measures the level of prostate-specific antigen in the blood, which can be an indicator of prostate cancer. Given the patient's demographic, this proactive screening measure is advisable, despite the absence of symptoms or previous medical problems.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Scheduling the next appointment for 1 year from now is a standard practice for patients who are considered to be in good health and have no immediate medical concerns. Given the patient's normal BP and BMI, along with no reported medical problems, this would typically be an appropriate action. However, it is essential to consider the patient's age and race, as African American men are at a higher risk for certain conditions, such as prostate cancer, which may warrant more frequent monitoring.
Choice B reason: While providing information for a weight loss plan that includes increasing physical activity is generally beneficial, it may not be necessary for this patient. His BMI is 24, which falls within the normal range (18.5-24.9), indicating that he is not overweight. Therefore, unless the patient expresses a desire to lose weight or improve fitness, this action might not be a priority.
Choice C reason:Offering information on reducing risk factors for hypertension is always a positive step in preventive healthcare. However, the patient's BP is 126 mm Hg, which is considered a normal reading (normal BP range is 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg). Therefore, while education on maintaining a healthy lifestyle is valuable, it may not be the most critical action for this visit.
Choice D reason:Scheduling a PSA test is recommended for African American men starting at age 45 due to their increased risk of prostate cancer. The PSA test measures the level of prostate-specific antigen in the blood, which can be an indicator of prostate cancer. Given the patient's demographic, this proactive screening measure is advisable, despite the absence of symptoms or previous medical problems.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason : The therapeutic INR range for a patient on Warfarin, especially for conditions such as atrial fibrillation, venous thromboembolism, and for the prevention of thrombosis in patients with prosthetic heart valves, is typically 2.0-3.0. This range balances the risk of clotting with the risk of bleeding. An INR of 2.0-3.0 means that the blood is taking twice to three times as long as normal blood to clot, which is the desired effect of the medication in preventing harmful clots.
Choice B reason : An INR range of 4.0-5.0 is generally considered too high for most therapeutic purposes and increases the risk of bleeding complications. This range might be appropriate in very specific clinical situations, such as for patients with mechanical heart valves who may require a slightly higher INR, but it is not the standard therapeutic range.
Choice C reason : An INR range of 1.0-2.0 is below the therapeutic range for patients on Warfarin. This range would not provide sufficient anticoagulation and would leave the patient at risk for thrombotic events.
Choice D reason : An INR range of 3.0-4.9 is higher than the standard therapeutic range and could lead to an increased risk of bleeding. While some patients with mechanical heart valves in the mitral position may require an INR up to 3.5, an INR higher than this is usually not necessary and could be dangerous.
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