A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has a chest tube set to continuous suction to relieve a pneumothorax. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Clamp the chest tube every 4 hr.
Place the client in a supine position.
Ensure the device is kept below the level of the client's chest.
Empty the collection chamber every 8 hr.
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Clamp the chest tube every 4 hr: Routine clamping of a chest tube is not recommended, as it can lead to tension pneumothorax by trapping air in the pleural space. Clamping is only done briefly and for specific reasons, such as system checks or before removal.
B. Place the client in a supine position: The supine position can impair lung expansion and hinder drainage from the pleural space. Clients with a chest tube are best positioned in semi-Fowler’s or high-Fowler’s to promote ventilation and facilitate drainage.
C. Ensure the device is kept below the level of the client's chest: Keeping the drainage system below chest level promotes gravity-assisted drainage and prevents backflow of air or fluid into the pleural space, which could compromise lung re-expansion.
D. Empty the collection chamber every 8 hr: The collection chamber is not emptied; it is replaced when full. Opening the system introduces infection risk and disrupts the closed drainage system necessary for maintaining negative pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "I will wait 1 hour after getting up in the morning to have breakfast.": Delaying breakfast may worsen nausea, as symptoms of hyperemesis gravidarum are often worse in the morning. It is recommended to eat a small, dry carbohydrate-rich snack, such as crackers, soon after waking.
B. "I will try to eat balanced meals instead of only foods that appeal to my taste.": While balanced meals are ideal, during hyperemesis gravidarum, the priority is tolerating any nutrition. Clients are encouraged to eat whatever foods they can tolerate, as nutritional intake is often severely limited.
C. “I will eat or drink something every 2 to 3 hours throughout the day": Eating or drinking small amounts frequently helps prevent an empty stomach, which can trigger or worsen nausea and vomiting. This approach improves tolerance and supports hydration and nutrition.
D. “I will eat a low protein snack 30 minutes before going to bed each night.": Protein-rich snacks, not low-protein ones, are better for stabilizing blood glucose levels overnight and may help reduce morning nausea. A high-protein snack before bed is more appropriate.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Urinary retention: Urinary retention is a potential side effect of epidural anesthesia due to blockade of sacral nerves, not necessarily a sign of unrelieved pain. It may occur even if pain is well managed, especially with regional anesthetics affecting bladder function.
B. Restlessness: Restlessness is a common behavioral indicator of unrelieved pain. When verbal reporting is limited or unreliable, restlessness may reflect discomfort, agitation, or anxiety related to inadequate pain control following procedures such as epidural administration.
C. Difficulty swallowing: Difficulty swallowing is not associated with pain from a herniated disc or the effects of an epidural. It may instead suggest upper airway or neurologic issues and should prompt assessment for complications unrelated to pain control.
D. Constipation: Constipation is more commonly linked to opioid use or immobility rather than unrelieved pain. While discomfort may contribute, constipation alone does not reliably indicate the adequacy of pain relief in clients receiving an epidural.
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