A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells (RBCs) following surgery. Which of the following assessments is an indication that the client might be experiencing circulatory overload?
Bradycardia
Flushing
Vomiting
Dyspnea
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Bradycardia is not an indication of circulatory overload. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, usually below 60 beats per minute. Circulatory overload causes the heart to work harder to pump the excess fluid in the blood vessels, which can result in tachycardia, or a fast heart rate, usually above 100 beats per minute.
Choice B reason: Flushing is not an indication of circulatory overload. Flushing is a reddening of the skin, usually due to increased blood flow or inflammation. Circulatory overload causes the blood vessels to constrict and increase the blood pressure, which can result in pallor, or a pale appearance of the skin.
Choice C reason: Vomiting is not an indication of circulatory overload. Vomiting is the forceful expulsion of stomach contents through the mouth, usually due to nausea, infection, or irritation. Circulatory overload does not affect the gastrointestinal system directly, although it may cause abdominal distension or ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity.
Choice D reason: Dyspnea is an indication of circulatory overload. Dyspnea is the sensation of difficulty breathing, usually due to inadequate oxygen delivery to the tissues. Circulatory overload causes the excess fluid in the blood vessels to leak into the lungs, which can result in pulmonary edema, or the accumulation of fluid in the alveoli. This impairs the gas exchange and causes hypoxia, or low oxygen levels in the blood.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: The extra letters after the name of the medication do not mean it is a stronger dose, but that it is a combination of two different medications. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure and heart rate, while hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that reduces fluid retention and blood volume. The combination of these two medications may have a synergistic effect and lower blood pressure more effectively than either one alone.
Choice B reason: The client will have to do some things differently because it is not the same medication, but a combination of two medications. The client will have to monitor their blood pressure, weight, fluid intake, and electrolyte levels more closely, as the addition of hydrochlorothiazide may increase the risk of dehydration, hypotension, and hypokalemia. The client will also have to avoid alcohol, salt, and potassium supplements, as they may interact with the medication and affect its efficacy or safety.
Choice C reason: The client will still have to diet to lose weight, as the medication does not cause weight loss, but may cause weight gain due to fluid retention. The client will have to follow a healthy diet that is low in sodium, fat, and cholesterol, as these may worsen hypertension and increase the risk of cardiovascular complications. The client will also have to exercise regularly, as this may help lower blood pressure and improve overall health.
Choice D reason: The client may experience fewer side effects with the new medication, as the combination of metoprolol and hydrochlorothiazide may lower the dose and frequency of each medication, and reduce the adverse effects of each one. For example, metoprolol may cause fatigue, dizziness, or bradycardia, while hydrochlorothiazide may cause dry mouth, headache, or gout. The combination of these two medications may balance out these effects and improve the client's tolerance and compliance.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Using IV tubing specific for heparin sodium when administering the infusion is not the correct action. Heparin sodium can be administered using any standard IV tubing, as long as it is primed with heparin solution to prevent clotting in the tubing.
Choice B reason: Administering 50,000 units of heparin by IV bolus every 12 hours is not the correct action. This is a very high dose of heparin that can cause bleeding complications. The usual dose of heparin for continuous IV infusion is 15 to 25 units/kg/hour, adjusted according to the aPTT results.
Choice C reason: Having vitamin K available on the nursing unit is not the correct action. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin. Vitamin K reverses the effects of warfarin by increasing the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver.
Choice D reason: Checking the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) every 4 hours is the correct action. The aPTT is a blood test that measures the time it takes for the blood to clot. It is used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. The therapeutic range of aPTT for heparin is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, or 60 to 80 seconds. The nurse should check the aPTT every 4 hours until it is within the therapeutic range, and then every 6 to 8 hours thereafter. The nurse should adjust the heparin infusion rate according to the aPTT results and the prescriber's orders.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.