A nurse is preparing to administer aripiprazole 9 mg. IM to a client. Available is aripiprazole injection 9.75 mg/3 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["1.2"]
Determine the concentration of the aripiprazole injection:
Available concentration: 9.75 mg / 1.3 mL
Calculate the volume (in mL) needed for a 9 mg dose:
Use the concentration as a conversion factor:
Volume (mL) = Ordered dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL) Volume (mL) = 9 mg / (9.75 mg / 1.3 mL)
Simplify the complex fraction:
Volume (mL) = 9 mg x (1.3 mL / 9.75 mg)
Calculate:
Volume (mL) = (9 x 1.3) / 9.75 = 11.7 / 9.75 = 1.2 mL
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Route:
Lorazepam is typically administered orally, intravenously, or intramuscularly. In this case, the route is not specified in the question, but if it were to be prescribed for oral administration (as would be common for bedtime use), the route would be considered appropriate. Therefore, there is no need to clarify the route in this scenario unless additional details were provided.
B) Medication:
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly prescribed for anxiety, insomnia, or seizures. It is a well-established medication with an appropriate indication. The medication itself is correct, and no clarification is needed in this regard.
C) Frequency:
The prescription states "at bedtime," which is an appropriate frequency for lorazepam, particularly when used to treat insomnia or anxiety during the night. This is a standard dosing regimen for a medication like lorazepam. Therefore, the frequency is not an issue and does not need clarification.
D) Dose:
The usual starting dose for lorazepam in adults for anxiety is typically 1–2 mg, and the dose for insomnia may range from 1–4 mg at bedtime. A dose of 4 mg is at the higher end of the recommended range, and while it may be prescribed for certain situations, it is relatively high for a single bedtime dose. The nurse should clarify whether this dose is appropriate for the client’s condition, as excessive sedation or respiratory depression could occur with higher doses, especially in older adults or those with comorbidities.
Correct Answer is ["2"]
Explanation
Determine the concentration of the chlorpromazine injection:
Available concentration: 25 mg/mL
Calculate the volume (in mL) needed for a 50 mg dose:
Use the concentration as a conversion factor:
Volume (mL) = Ordered dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL) Volume (mL) = 50 mg / 25 mg/mL = 2 mL
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