A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil by IV bolus to a client who is having cardiac dysrhythmias. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor when giving this medication?

Hypotension

Muscle pain

Ototoxicity

Hyperthermia

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Verapamil, as a calcium channel blocker, can cause vasodilation (widening of blood vessels), which can lead to a decrease in blood pressure. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial when administering verapamil, especially via IV bolus, as it can rapidly lower blood pressure and potentially lead to symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting.
B.   Muscle pain is not a common or expected adverse effect of verapamil. While some medications might cause muscle-related symptoms, verapamil is more commonly associated with cardiovascular effects, such as hypotension and bradycardia, rather than muscle pain.
C.   Ototoxicity is not a known adverse effect of verapamil. Ototoxicity is more commonly associated with other classes of drugs, such as certain antibiotics (e.g., aminoglycosides) or diuretics. Verapamil primarily affects the cardiovascular system, so ototoxicity is not a concern with this medication.
D.   Hyperthermia is not a common adverse effect of verapamil. Verapamil does not typically affect body temperature regulation. Conditions associated with hyperthermia are more likely related to infections, overheating, or certain other medications, but not verapamil.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. This client is at risk for other complications such as electrolyte imbalances or heart failure, but not specifically neurogenic shock.
B. This client is experiencing respiratory distress, which is a different type of shock (anaphylactic or septic shock might be considered, but not neurogenic).

C. Guillain-Barré syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that affects the nervous system, often leading to paralysis. It can cause a rapid loss of muscle function, which can result in neurogenic shock due to loss of sympathetic nervous system tone.
D. This client is at risk for hypovolemic shock due to fluid loss, not neurogenic shock.

A. Methylprednisolone B. Dobutamine C. Furosemide D. Epinephrine

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Methylprednisolone is a crucial medication in managing anaphylaxis but it takes longer to act compared to epinephrine and is not the immediate first-line treatment.
B. Dobutamine is a vasopressor used to treat heart failure. However, it's not indicated in the initial management of anaphylaxis.
C. Furosemide is a diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema. It has no role in treating anaphylaxis.
D. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock. It rapidly reverses the life-threatening effects of anaphylaxis by constricting blood vessels, relaxing airway muscles, and stimulating the heart.

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A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil by IV bolus to a client who is having cardiac dysrhythmias. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor when giving this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing care for a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients is at risk for developing neurogenic shock?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing anaphylactic shock in response to the administration of penicillin. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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