A nurse is preparing to discharge an older adult patient who had a mastectomy several months ago. The client tells the nurse that she has not had much desire for sexual relations since her surgery, stating, "my body is so different now." Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
"It is still too soon to expect to feel normal. Give it a few more years."
"Really, you look just fine to me. There's no need to feel undesirable."
"Consider an afternoon at the spa. A facial will make you feel more attractive."
"I'm interested in finding out more about how your body feels to you."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Telling the client it is too soon to expect to feel normal and to give it a few more years dismisses her feelings and provides an unrealistic timeline. It is not supportive or empathetic.
Choice B reason: Saying "Really, you look just fine to me. There's no need to feel undesirable" invalidates the client's feelings and does not address her concerns about her body image and sexual desire.
Choice C reason: Suggesting an afternoon at the spa and a facial to make her feel more attractive trivializes the client's emotional and physical experience post-surgery. It does not provide meaningful support or address the underlying issues.
Choice D reason: Expressing interest in how the client's body feels to her validates her feelings and opens up a dialogue for her to share her concerns. This approach is empathetic and allows the nurse to provide better support and address any issues the client might have.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hyperkalemia is a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury due to reduced excretion of potassium by the kidneys. This electrolyte imbalance can have serious cardiac effects and should be expected and monitored in these patients.
Choice B reason: An increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) would not be expected in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Typically, GFR is decreased due to reduced kidney function during this phase.
Choice C reason: Decreased creatinine levels are not expected in acute kidney injury. Creatinine levels usually increase as kidney function declines and the body cannot adequately filter waste.
Choice D reason: Hypovolemia is not typically expected in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, as oliguria (reduced urine output) often indicates fluid retention rather than fluid loss.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Sodium bicarbonate is used to treat metabolic acidosis and is not indicated for symptomatic bradycardia.
Choice B reason: Atropine is the first-line medication for symptomatic bradycardia. It works by blocking the vagus nerve's effects on the heart, increasing heart rate. It is commonly used in emergency settings to manage bradycardia until a more definitive treatment, such as pacemaker insertion, can be provided.
Choice C reason: Magnesium is typically used to treat torsades de pointes, a specific type of ventricular tachycardia, and is not indicated for symptomatic bradycardia.
Choice D reason: Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication used to manage various types of arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation, but it is not indicated for symptomatic bradycardia.
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