A nurse is caring for a client who has been suspected of recent exposure to anthrax by inhalation. Which of the following findings would indicate the client has been exposed?

Flu-like symptoms

Vesicles on the skin

Respiratory failure

Flaccid paralysis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Flu-like symptoms: This is correct. Inhalation anthrax initially presents with flu-like symptoms, including fever, cough, and malaise. This early presentation can progress to severe respiratory distress and systemic illness.
B. Vesicles on the skin: This is incorrect. Vesicular lesions are more characteristic of diseases such as smallpox or chickenpox, not anthrax.
C. Respiratory failure: While respiratory failure can occur with advanced inhalation anthrax, it is a later-stage complication rather than an initial finding.
D. Flaccid paralysis: This is incorrect. Flaccid paralysis is not a typical symptom of anthrax exposure but may be associated with diseases such as botulism.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. A 28-year-old client who has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease: This is incorrect. While a history of pelvic inflammatory disease does not necessarily contraindicate oral contraceptive use, it should be assessed for any other potential complications or contraindications.
B. A 26-year-old client who is mobile post appendectomy: This is incorrect. Recent surgery, such as an appendectomy, is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives, provided the client is otherwise healthy.
C. A 38-year-old client who reports smoking one pack of cigarettes every day: This is correct. Smoking, especially in women over 35, is a contraindication for oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events such as thrombosis.
D. A 32-year-old client who has fibrocystic breast disease: This is incorrect. Fibrocystic breast disease does not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.

A. Transmission of the disease will not occur when my lesions are gone. B. The use of condoms will reduce the risk of transmission. C. Antiviral medications will not cure the infection. D. Abstaining from sexual activity reduces the risk of transmission of the disease.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Transmission of the disease will not occur when my lesions are gone: This is incorrect. Genital herpes can still be transmitted even when lesions are not present, due to asymptomatic viral shedding.
B. The use of condoms will reduce the risk of transmission: This is correct. Condoms can reduce the risk of transmission but do not completely eliminate it, as herpes can be transmitted through skin-to-skin contact not covered by the condom.
C. Antiviral medications will not cure the infection: This is correct. Antiviral medications help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of outbreaks but do not cure herpes.
D. Abstaining from sexual activity reduces the risk of transmission of the disease: This is correct. Abstaining from sexual activity during outbreaks or when symptoms are present reduces the risk of spreading the virus.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has been suspected of recent exposure to anthrax by inhalation. Which of the following findings would indicate the client has been exposed?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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