A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed ondansetron (Zofran) for postoperative nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is a complication associated with this medication?
Prolonged QT interval
Extrapyramidal symptoms
Nausea
Vomiting
The Correct Answer is A
A. Prolonged QT interval – This is correct. Ondansetron can cause prolongation of the QT interval, increasing the risk of arrhythmias, including torsades de pointes. This is a serious complication that requires monitoring, particularly in clients with cardiac risks.
B. Extrapyramidal symptoms – This is incorrect. Ondansetron does not typically cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are more associated with dopamine antagonists like metoclopramide or prochlorperazine.
C. Nausea – This is incorrect. Ondansetron is specifically used to treat nausea and vomiting, not to cause them. If nausea persists, it may indicate treatment failure or another underlying issue.
D. Vomiting – This is incorrect. Ondansetron is an antiemetic and works to prevent vomiting. Vomiting would not be a complication of this medication under proper use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "I will take both aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) and cimetidine (Tagamet HB) at the same time." – This is correct. Taking aluminum hydroxide and cimetidine simultaneously reduces the effectiveness of cimetidine by impairing its absorption. This statement indicates a need for further teaching.
B. "I will take aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) 1 hour before taking cimetidine (Tagamet HB)." – This is incorrect. Taking aluminum hydroxide 1 hour before cimetidine allows enough time for the antacid's effects on stomach acidity to stabilize, reducing interference.
C. "I can take aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) 2 hours before taking cimetidine (Tagamet HB)." – This is incorrect. Taking the antacid 2 hours before cimetidine provides sufficient time for proper absorption of the medication.
D. None of the above – This is incorrect because statement A reflects improper administration.
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
A. Glucagon (Glucagen): Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia and is not indicated for managing EPS or involuntary muscle spasms.
B. Metformin (Glucophage): Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic agent used to manage diabetes mellitus and is not relevant for treating EPS or involuntary muscle spasms.
C. Benztropine (Cogentin): Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as involuntary muscle spasms, caused by antipsychotic medications like prochlorperazine2.
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl): Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine with anticholinergic properties that can also be used to manage EPS, including dystonic reactions2.
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