A nurse is providing care to a client diagnosed with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse understands that the primary problem involves which gland?

Posterior pituitary gland

Anterior pituitary gland

Thyroid gland

Adrenal gland

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: The posterior pituitary gland is the primary site involved in SIADH, as it releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Excessive ADH secretion causes water retention, leading to hyponatremia. In SIADH, dysregulation of ADH release, often due to ectopic production or pituitary overstimulation, is the core pathophysiological mechanism.

Choice B reason: The anterior pituitary gland produces hormones like growth hormone and ACTH, not ADH. It is not involved in SIADH, which is specifically related to excessive ADH from the posterior pituitary or ectopic sources, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia, distinct from anterior pituitary functions.

Choice C reason: The thyroid gland regulates metabolism through thyroid hormones, not fluid balance. SIADH is caused by excessive ADH, which is unrelated to thyroid function. Thyroid disorders may cause metabolic symptoms but do not contribute to the water retention seen in SIADH.

Choice D reason: The adrenal gland produces cortisol and aldosterone, which regulate stress responses and sodium balance, not ADH. SIADH involves excessive ADH, leading to water retention, and is unrelated to adrenal function. Adrenal disorders like Addison’s disease affect sodium differently, not via ADH.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Iron deficiency anemia causes fatigue and anemia due to low iron, reducing hemoglobin synthesis. However, it does not typically cause neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, or left upper quadrant pain. Bruising may occur, but the triad of pancytopenia and recent infections points more strongly to bone marrow failure.

Choice B reason: Hemolytic anemia involves red blood cell destruction, causing anemia and fatigue, but neutropenia and thrombocytopenia are not typical. Left upper quadrant pain may suggest splenomegaly, but the full pancytopenia and infection history align better with bone marrow suppression than hemolytic processes alone.

Choice C reason: Sickle cell anemia causes hemolytic anemia and pain from vaso-occlusion, potentially in the spleen (left upper quadrant). However, it does not typically cause neutropenia or thrombocytopenia. The client’s pancytopenia and recurrent infections suggest a broader bone marrow issue, not specific to sickle cell disease.

Choice D reason: Aplastic anemia is characterized by bone marrow failure, leading to pancytopenia (anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia), causing fatigue, bruising, and infection susceptibility. Left upper quadrant pain may indicate splenomegaly or bleeding. The history of recurrent infections supports neutropenia from bone marrow suppression, making this the most likely diagnosis.

A. Stay on oxygen therapy 24/7 B. Avoid any type of sports C. Avoid any activity that makes you short of breath D. Drink at least 8 glasses of water every day

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Continuous oxygen therapy is not a standard preventive measure for sickle cell crises. Oxygen is used during acute crises to treat hypoxia from vaso-occlusion, but daily hydration is more effective for prevention, as it reduces blood viscosity and sickling, making this inappropriate.

Choice B reason: Avoiding all sports is overly restrictive for sickle cell anemia. Moderate exercise can be safe with proper hydration and rest. Complete avoidance does not directly prevent crises and may reduce quality of life, whereas hydration directly addresses the risk of sickling and vaso-occlusion.

Choice C reason: Avoiding activities causing shortness of breath is partially correct, as overexertion can trigger hypoxia and crises. However, it is less specific than hydration, which directly reduces blood viscosity and sickling, preventing crises more effectively across various situations, not just during exertion.

Choice D reason: Drinking at least 8 glasses of water daily is critical in sickle cell anemia to prevent crises. Adequate hydration reduces blood viscosity, preventing red blood cell sickling and vaso-occlusion. Dehydration increases sickling risk, making consistent fluid intake a key preventive strategy for this client.

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A nurse is providing care to a client diagnosed with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse understands that the primary problem involves which gland?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. The client asks the nurse what they can do to help prevent sickle cell crisis. What would be an appropriate answer to this client?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy has been experiencing an exacerbation of iron-deficiency anemia in recent weeks. When providing the client with nutritional guidelines and meal suggestions, what foods would be most likely to increase the client’s iron stores?

A preceptor discussing stroke with a new nurse on the unit would tell the new nurse that which cardiac dysrhythmia is associated with cardiogenic embolic strokes?

A nurse is providing care to a client diagnosed with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse understands that the primary problem involves which gland?

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Which of the following medications is used in the treatment of diabetes insipidus to control fluid balance?

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Which endocrine disorder causes the client to have dilutional hyponatremia?

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