A nurse is providing care to a client diagnosed with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse understands that the primary problem involves which gland?

Posterior pituitary gland

Anterior pituitary gland

Thyroid gland

Adrenal gland

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: The posterior pituitary gland is the primary site involved in SIADH, as it releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Excessive ADH secretion causes water retention, leading to hyponatremia. In SIADH, dysregulation of ADH release, often due to ectopic production or pituitary overstimulation, is the core pathophysiological mechanism.

Choice B reason: The anterior pituitary gland produces hormones like growth hormone and ACTH, not ADH. It is not involved in SIADH, which is specifically related to excessive ADH from the posterior pituitary or ectopic sources, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia, distinct from anterior pituitary functions.

Choice C reason: The thyroid gland regulates metabolism through thyroid hormones, not fluid balance. SIADH is caused by excessive ADH, which is unrelated to thyroid function. Thyroid disorders may cause metabolic symptoms but do not contribute to the water retention seen in SIADH.

Choice D reason: The adrenal gland produces cortisol and aldosterone, which regulate stress responses and sodium balance, not ADH. SIADH involves excessive ADH, leading to water retention, and is unrelated to adrenal function. Adrenal disorders like Addison’s disease affect sodium differently, not via ADH.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Dilute urine is not expected in SIADH, as excessive ADH promotes water reabsorption in the kidneys’ collecting ducts, leading to concentrated urine with high osmolality. Dilute urine is characteristic of diabetes insipidus, where ADH deficiency causes excessive water loss, producing large volumes of dilute urine.

Choice B reason: Hypernatremia is not a manifestation of SIADH. Excessive ADH causes water retention, diluting serum sodium and leading to hyponatremia. Hypernatremia occurs in conditions like diabetes insipidus, where water loss concentrates sodium, opposite to the fluid overload seen in SIADH.

Choice C reason: Increased serum osmolality is not typical in SIADH. Water retention due to excessive ADH dilutes serum sodium and osmol Jon the same paragraph, and the correct answer with detailed scientific rationales for each choice. The text will be in regular font, with no bold, and each question will be clearly numbered with two lines skipped after the number and one line after the question. I will avoid in-text citations and ensure scientific explanations are detailed and at least 58 words long.

Choice D reason: Concentrated urine is a hallmark of SIADH due to excessive ADH, which promotes water reabsorption in the renal collecting ducts, reducing urine volume and increasing its osmolality. This contrasts with diabetes insipidus, where dilute urine is produced, making concentrated urine a key diagnostic feature of SIADH.

A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Hemolytic anemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Aplastic anemia

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Iron deficiency anemia causes fatigue and anemia due to low iron, reducing hemoglobin synthesis. However, it does not typically cause neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, or left upper quadrant pain. Bruising may occur, but the triad of pancytopenia and recent infections points more strongly to bone marrow failure.

Choice B reason: Hemolytic anemia involves red blood cell destruction, causing anemia and fatigue, but neutropenia and thrombocytopenia are not typical. Left upper quadrant pain may suggest splenomegaly, but the full pancytopenia and infection history align better with bone marrow suppression than hemolytic processes alone.

Choice C reason: Sickle cell anemia causes hemolytic anemia and pain from vaso-occlusion, potentially in the spleen (left upper quadrant). However, it does not typically cause neutropenia or thrombocytopenia. The client’s pancytopenia and recurrent infections suggest a broader bone marrow issue, not specific to sickle cell disease.

Choice D reason: Aplastic anemia is characterized by bone marrow failure, leading to pancytopenia (anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia), causing fatigue, bruising, and infection susceptibility. Left upper quadrant pain may indicate splenomegaly or bleeding. The history of recurrent infections supports neutropenia from bone marrow suppression, making this the most likely diagnosis.

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A nurse is providing care to a client diagnosed with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse understands that the primary problem involves which gland?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has been diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which of the following manifestations would be expected in this client?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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