A nurse is providing care to multiple patients in a hospital setting.
Which patient is at the highest risk for developing hypoglycemia?
A patient with type 1 diabetes who has taken a high dose of insulin.
A patient with type 2 diabetes who has not taken any medication.
An elderly patient who is taking an antibiotic for an infection.
A patient with metabolic syndrome who is taking a statin to lower cholesterol levels.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A patient with type 1 diabetes who has taken a high dose of insulin is at the highest risk for developing hypoglycemia. Insulin lowers blood glucose levels, and taking a high dose can cause the levels to drop too low.
Choice B rationale
A patient with type 2 diabetes who has not taken any medication is not at a high risk for developing hypoglycemia. Without medication, their blood glucose levels may be high, not low.
Choice C rationale
An elderly patient who is taking an antibiotic for an infection is not at a high risk for developing hypoglycemia. Antibiotics do not typically affect blood glucose levels.
Choice D rationale
A patient with metabolic syndrome who is taking a statin to lower cholesterol levels is not at a high risk for developing hypoglycemia. Statins do not typically affect blood glucose levels.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"}}
Explanation
Based on the provided exhibits, here are the considerations for the provider’s prescriptions:
- Test stools for occult blood:Anticipated. Given the client’s report of vomiting brown emesis, which could indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, testing stools for occult blood is a standard diagnostic approach to confirm or rule out bleeding.
- Insert a nasogastric tube, attach to low suction:Anticipated. The client has vomited coffee ground emesis, which is a sign of possible upper gastrointestinal bleeding. A nasogastric tube can help decompress the stomach and remove any remaining blood or gastric contents.
- Administer aspirin for abdominal pain:Contraindicated. Aspirin can exacerbate gastrointestinal bleeding, especially in a client with a history of GERD and current symptoms that may suggest a gastrointestinal bleed.
- Initiate IV fluids:Anticipated. The client’s vital signs indicate tachycardia and hypotension, which, along with the clinical presentation, suggest volume depletion possibly due to vomiting and potential bleeding. IV fluids are necessary to maintain hemodynamic stability.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While erythropoietin (Epogen) can help improve symptoms of anemia, such as fatigue, it does not directly increase energy levels.
Choice B rationale
Erythropoietin (Epogen) stimulates the body to produce more of its own red blood cells. This is its primary function and the reason it is used in the treatment of anemia.
Choice C rationale
Erythropoietin (Epogen) does not work like a blood transfusion. While both can increase the number of red blood cells, erythropoietin stimulates the body to produce more of its own red blood cells, while a blood transfusion involves adding red blood cells from a donor.
Choice D rationale
Erythropoietin (Epogen) does not inhibit proteins that attack blood cells. It works by stimulating the production of more red blood cells.
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