A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client who is to undergo transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) for depression. Which of the following information should the nurse provide?
"The procedure will take about 2 hours."
"Most people only require one treatment to eliminate their depression."
"You may experience a mild headache following the procedure."
"You will be asleep during the procedure."
The Correct Answer is C
A. "The procedure will take about 2 hours.": A typical transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) session lasts about 30 to 40 minutes. The treatment is conducted on an outpatient basis, allowing clients to resume daily activities immediately afterward.
B. "Most people only require one treatment to eliminate their depression.": TMS is typically administered in multiple sessions over several weeks. A full course usually consists of daily treatments for four to six weeks to achieve significant symptom improvement.
C. "You may experience a mild headache following the procedure.": Mild headaches and scalp discomfort are common side effects of TMS due to repeated magnetic pulses stimulating the brain. These effects are generally temporary and can be managed with over-the-counter analgesics.
D. "You will be asleep during the procedure.": TMS does not require sedation or anesthesia. Clients remain awake and alert during the procedure, as the treatment is noninvasive and does not cause significant discomfort requiring sedation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Cyclothymic disorder: Cyclothymic disorder involves chronic mood instability with alternating hypomanic and depressive symptoms for at least two years. These mood fluctuations occur independently of the menstrual cycle and do not meet the criteria for major mood episodes.
B. Postpartum depression: Postpartum depression occurs within weeks to months after childbirth and presents with persistent sadness, fatigue, and emotional distress. It is unrelated to the menstrual cycle and requires medical treatment such as therapy and antidepressants.
C. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder: Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is marked by mood disturbances, including depressed mood, irritability, and anxiety, occurring in the luteal phase before menstruation. Symptoms resolve after menstruation begins, and treatment may include SSRIs, hormonal therapy, or lifestyle modifications.
D. Bipolar disorder: Bipolar disorder involves episodes of mania and depression that are unrelated to hormonal changes in the menstrual cycle. Manic episodes present with impulsivity and grandiosity, while depressive episodes cause low energy and anhedonia, requiring mood stabilizers.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Exhaustion phase. The exhaustion phase occurs when the body's ability to cope with stress is depleted, leading to physical and psychological impairments such as fatigue, burnout, and increased susceptibility to illness. This phase does not align with maintaining performance over an extended period.
B. Alarm phase. The alarm phase is the initial reaction to stress, activating the sympathetic nervous system and triggering the "fight-or-flight" response. While it provides a short-term boost in alertness and energy, it is not sustainable for weeks to months without impairment.
C. Resistance phase. The resistance phase allows the body to adapt to prolonged stress, maintaining homeostasis and function without significant observable impairment. During this phase, the individual continues to perform duties effectively despite ongoing stress.
D. Adaptive phase. The General Adaptation Syndrome does not include an "adaptive phase." Adaptation occurs within the resistance phase, making this answer incorrect.
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