A nurse is reinforcing the provider's explanation about treatment options to the parents of a 1-month-old who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
"The obstruction will be treated with a medication called indomethacin."
"Surgical repair is the recommended treatment for infants younger than 6 months old."
"The cardiologist will monitor your infant closely until they are able to receive treatment with a heart transplant."
"Most cases resolve spontaneously without treatment by 12 months of age."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "The obstruction will be treated with a medication called indomethacin." Indomethacin is used to close a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), not to treat coarctation of the aorta. Instead, prostaglandins may be used temporarily to keep the ductus arteriosus open and improve blood flow until surgery.
B. "Surgical repair is the recommended treatment for infants younger than 6 months old." Coarctation of the aorta does not resolve on its own and requires surgical intervention, typically within the first few months of life. Options include resection with end-to-end anastomosis or balloon angioplasty in some cases.
C. "The cardiologist will monitor your infant closely until they are able to receive treatment with a heart transplant." Heart transplant is not the standard treatment for coarctation of the aorta; surgery or catheter-based intervention is the preferred approach.
D. "Most cases resolve spontaneously without treatment by 12 months of age." Coarctation of the aorta does not resolve on its own. If left untreated, it can lead to heart failure, hypertension, and other complications.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
Severe Pain Management: The child's pain increased from 7/10 to 10/10, indicating worsening vaso-occlusive crisis. IV hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is a strong opioid analgesic commonly used for severe sickle cell pain when first-line options (e.g., morphine) are insufficient. Swelling and warmth in the right knee suggest ongoing vaso-occlusion and inflammation. Increased blood pressure (120/74 mm Hg) and respiratory rate (25/min) likely indicate pain-related distress.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
Temperature: The temperature decreased from 38.8° C (101.8° F) to 37.6° C (99.7° F), which indicates a potential improvement in the infection response as the body temperature is coming down.
WBC count: The WBC count increased slightly from 14,000/mm³ to 15,000/mm³, which is still elevated compared to the normal range (5,000 to 10,000/mm³). This suggests that the body is still responding to infection and could indicate a worsening condition if the trend continues or remains elevated.
Weight-bearing ability on the affected leg: The improvement in weight-bearing ability suggests that the condition of the leg is improving. This indicates that the condition is improving as the pain or swelling may have decreased.
Wound assessment: The wound culture is still pending, and although there is no specific description provided, a pending culture and the general condition of the wound (which can be assessed for redness, warmth, or exudate) might still indicate a worsening condition if there is continued inflammation or signs of spreading cellulitis.
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