A nurse is reviewing data for patients on an inpatient unit. Which patient will the nurse see first?
A 6-year-old who has asthma and an oxygen saturation of 94% on room air.
A 10-year-old who has sickle cell anaemia reporting severe chest pain.
A 47-year-old who has diabetes insipidus with a urine specific gravity of 1.010.
A 5-year-old who has respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) with a temperature of 102.2°F.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: While an oxygen saturation of 94% is slightly low, it is not an immediate emergency for a child with asthma. This patient can be monitored but does not require the nurse's immediate attention.
Choice B reason: Severe chest pain in a patient with sickle cell anaemia can indicate a serious complication known as acute chest syndrome, which is a medical emergency. This condition requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice C reason: A urine specific gravity of 1.010 indicates dilute urine, which is typical for a patient with diabetes insipidus. While this condition requires management, it is not an immediate emergency compared to severe chest pain in a sickle cell anaemia patient.
Choice D reason: A fever of 102.2°F in a child with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is concerning and requires attention, but it is not as immediately life-threatening as severe chest pain in a sickle cell anaemia patient. This patient can be seen after addressing the more urgent case.
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Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Applying a cold pack to the affected area is the most appropriate intervention for managing hemarthrosis (bleeding into the joint) in a patient with haemophilia A. Cold therapy helps reduce pain, swelling, and inflammation by constricting blood vessels, which can slow down bleeding. This intervention also provides comfort to the patient and helps manage the acute symptoms of hemarthrosis effectively.
Choice B reason: Administering ibuprofen for pain is not recommended for patients with haemophilia A because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding by inhibiting platelet function. Instead, acetaminophen (Tylenol) is often preferred for pain management in these patients as it does not have the same blood-thinning effects.
Choice C reason: Performing range-of-motion exercises is not appropriate during the acute phase of hemarthrosis. Movement and exercise can exacerbate bleeding and increase pain. It is essential to allow the joint to rest and stabilize before considering gentle range-of-motion exercises during the recovery phase. Immediate management should focus on controlling bleeding and reducing inflammation.
Choice D reason: Placing the leg in a dependent position (lower than the heart) is not recommended for managing hemarthrosis. Elevating the affected limb is a better approach as it helps reduce swelling and pain by promoting venous return and minimizing blood flow to the affected area. The dependent position can increase blood flow to the joint, potentially worsening the bleeding and swelling.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: The Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is typically recommended for preteens at age 11 or 12 to protect against HPV infections that can lead to certain types of cancer later in life. This vaccine is given as a series of shots, and starting the series at 11 years old is ideal for maximizing its effectiveness before any potential exposure to the virus.
Choice B reason: The Pneumococcal vaccine is generally recommended for infants, young children, and older adults, particularly those with certain health conditions. It protects against pneumococcal disease, including infections in the lungs, blood, and brain. While it is crucial for vulnerable populations, it is not typically administered to healthy 11-year-old children.
Choice C reason: The Measles vaccine is part of the MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine, which is usually administered in two doses—the first dose at 12-15 months of age and the second dose at 4-6 years of age. By the time a child reaches 11 years old, they would have already received both doses of the MMR vaccine, assuming they followed the standard vaccination schedule.
Choice D reason: The Rubella vaccine is also included in the MMR vaccine, which is given in two doses during early childhood. Since the second dose is typically administered by the age of 6, an 11-year-old child would not require another dose of the Rubella vaccine if they followed the standard vaccination schedule.
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