A nurse is transcribing a client’s prescription for erythromycin 500 mg four times per day. Which of the following information should the nurse clarify with the provider?
Medication
Dosage
Route
Time
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Erythromycin is specified, so the medication is clear. No ambiguity exists here for clarification. Scientifically, drug identity is explicit, and errors arise elsewhere, making this unnecessary to question unless a different antibiotic was intended, which isn’t suggested.
Choice B reason: Dosage (500 mg) is precise, with no range or units needing clarification. Scientifically, this is a standard erythromycin dose, aligning with therapeutic norms for infections, leaving little room for error unless misheard, which isn’t indicated.
Choice C reason: Route (e.g., oral, IV) isn’t stated, critical for erythromycin, as administration affects bioavailability and efficacy. Scientifically, unclear delivery risks under- or overdosing, necessitating provider clarification to ensure safe, effective treatment per pharmacological standards.
Choice D reason: Time (four times daily) is clear, aligning with erythromycin’s pharmacokinetics for steady levels. Scientifically, frequency is unambiguous, requiring no clarification unless intervals were vague, which they aren’t, making this less urgent than route.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Tetracycline allergy doesn’t cross-react with azithromycin, a macrolide. They’re distinct classes, so this isn’t a concern for chlamydia treatment safety.
Choice B reason: Sulfonamide allergy is unrelated to azithromycin’s macrolide structure. No cross-sensitivity exists, making this irrelevant for reporting in this case.
Choice C reason: Azithromycin is a macrolide; allergy to this class risks anaphylaxis. Reporting ensures safe alternative prescribing for chlamydia, a critical safety step.
Choice D reason: Penicillin allergy doesn’t affect azithromycin use; they’re unrelated structurally. This doesn’t require reporting, as no cross-reaction occurs here.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Elevated ammonia relates to liver failure, not pancreatitis. Pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme leakage, not nitrogen metabolism. Scientifically, ammonia rises in hepatic encephalopathy, lacking relevance to pancreatic inflammation, making this an incorrect marker for the condition.
Choice B reason: Elevated lipase is a hallmark of pancreatitis, as inflamed pancreatic acinar cells release this enzyme into blood. Scientifically, it’s a specific diagnostic indicator, rising with tissue damage, aligning with pancreatitis pathophysiology for accurate clinical identification.
Choice C reason: Prolonged PT/INR reflects coagulopathy, often liver-related, not pancreatitis unless complicated by disseminated intravascular coagulation. Scientifically, this isn’t a primary marker, as pancreatitis targets digestion, not clotting, making it less expected in typical cases.
Choice D reason: Decreased albumin suggests chronic liver disease or malnutrition, not acute pancreatitis. Pancreatitis doesn’t directly impair protein synthesis. Scientifically, albumin drops over time, not acutely, misaligning with pancreatitis’s rapid inflammatory onset and diagnostic profile.
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