A nurse started a client's gentamicin via an intravenous (IV) route that is programmed to infuse over one hour.
Ten minutes after the administration, the client reports dyspnea, generalized rash, and itchiness.
What is the priority intervention for this client?
Stop the infusion immediately.
Administer an IV fluid bolus to flush the medication.
Encourage the client to take deep breaths and remain calm.
Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Stopping the infusion immediately is crucial to prevent further exposure to the allergen causing the adverse reaction. This intervention halts the administration of gentamicin, which is likely causing the dyspnea, rash, and itchiness. Prompt discontinuation of the medication minimizes the severity of the allergic reaction and allows for further medical management.
Choice B rationale
Administering an IV fluid bolus to flush the medication is not the priority intervention in this case. While it might help to clear the medication from the bloodstream, it does not address the immediate need to stop the allergen exposure and manage the allergic reaction.
Choice C rationale
Encouraging the client to take deep breaths and remain calm is supportive, but it does not address the root cause of the allergic reaction, which is the administration of gentamicin. The immediate priority is to stop the infusion and then manage the symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may help alleviate respiratory distress, but it is not the priority intervention. The primary step is to stop the infusion to prevent further exposure to the allergen.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women by mimicking estrogen's beneficial effects on bone density.
Choice B rationale
Heparin is an anticoagulant used to prevent and treat blood clots, not osteoporosis.
Choice C rationale
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to treat heart failure and arrhythmias, not osteoporosis.
Choice D rationale
Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots and not indicated for osteoporosis treatment.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Morphine has a high potential for abuse due to its euphoric effects and the risk of developing physical dependence and addiction with prolonged use.
Choice B rationale
Morphine acts as an agonist on the mu and kappa receptors in the central nervous system, providing analgesic effects by altering the perception of and response to pain.
Choice C rationale
Morphine is a potent analgesic that is more effective than butorphanol, which is a mixed agonist-antagonist with less potency and a ceiling effect on pain relief.
Choice D rationale
Morphine is primarily used for pain management and is not indicated for preventing fevers.
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