A nurse would expect a client with rheumatic fever to have which manifestations on assessment?
Polyarthritis.
Carditis.
Janeway lesions.
Subcutaneous nodules.
Cervical lymphadenopathy.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Polyarthritis is a manifestation of rheumatic fever, but it is not the primary manifestation. The main manifestation is carditis, involving inflammation of the heart's valves and structures.
Choice B rationale:
Carditis is a hallmark manifestation of rheumatic fever. It involves inflammation of the heart's valves and structures, leading to murmurs and potential long-term cardiac damage.
Choice C rationale:
Janeway lesions are not associated with rheumatic fever. They are painless, small erythematous or hemorrhagic macules on the palms and soles, typically seen in infective endocarditis.
Choice D rationale:
Subcutaneous nodules are not a primary manifestation of rheumatic fever. These nodules, which are firm and nontender, may develop over bony prominences in cases of severe rheumatic fever.
Choice E rationale:
Cervical lymphadenopathy is not a characteristic manifestation of rheumatic fever. This type of lymphadenopathy is more commonly seen in infections or lymphatic malignancies.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
X-linked dominant disorders are characterized by a mutation on the X chromosome that results in the expression of the trait in both males and females. Hemophilia, however, is more commonly associated with males, which is not consistent with an X-linked dominant pattern.
Choice B rationale:
Autosomal recessive disorders require the inheritance of two mutated alleles, one from each parent, to express the trait. Hemophilia does not follow this pattern, as the patient's sisters do not have the condition despite having affected parents.
Choice C rationale:
Autosomal dominant disorders only require the inheritance of one mutated allele from an affected parent to express the trait. Hemophilia does not align with an autosomal dominant pattern, as the patient's sisters would likely be affected if it were.
Choice D rationale:
Hemophilia is a classic example of an X-linked recessive disorder. The gene responsible for producing clotting factor is located on the X chromosome, and males have only one X chromosome, making them more susceptible to the disorder. Females, with two X chromosomes, usually act as carriers unless both X chromosomes carry the mutation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While addressing the client's food preferences is important for their overall care, pain management takes priority during a vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis to alleviate suffering and prevent complications.
Choice B rationale:
Assessing the client's knowledge about the illness is significant for education, but pain relief should precede this assessment to promptly address their distress.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining a urine specimen is a relevant diagnostic step, but pain management should be initiated before further assessments or interventions.
Choice D rationale:
Administering pain relief medication is the immediate nursing priority. Sickle cell crises are excruciating, and timely pain management helps alleviate suffering and improve the client's well-being.
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