A patient begins taking an ACE inhibitor and complains of a dry cough. What does the nurse correctly tell the patient about this symptom?
It indicates that a serious side effect has occurred
It occurs frequently in patients taking the drug but will subside over time
It is a common side effect that occurs in all patients taking the drug
It is an uncomfortable side effect experienced by some patients and will require your medication be changed
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Dry cough is a common, not serious, side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin accumulation. While bothersome, it’s not life-threatening like angioedema. It often necessitates switching to an ARB, but calling it serious overstates the risk, making this choice incorrect.
Choice B reason: Dry cough occurs in 5-20% of ACE inhibitor users but doesn’t typically subside with continued use, as bradykinin accumulation persists. Patients often require a medication change (e.g., to ARBs), making the claim that it will subside over time inaccurate and incorrect.
Choice C reason: Dry cough is common but not universal in ACE inhibitor users, affecting 5-20% of patients due to variable bradykinin sensitivity. Stating it occurs in all patients is inaccurate, as many tolerate ACE inhibitors without cough, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D reason: Dry cough, caused by bradykinin buildup, affects some ACE inhibitor users and is uncomfortable, often requiring a switch to an ARB, which doesn’t affect bradykinin. This accurately reflects the side effect’s impact and management, making it the correct choice for the nurse’s response.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Captopril PO is used for chronic hypertension, not acute crises, due to slower onset. IV nitroprusside acts rapidly to control severe hypertension, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Hydralazine PO has a slower onset, unsuitable for hypertensive crisis requiring immediate control. IV nitroprusside is faster and titratable, making this incorrect for acute management.
Choice C reason: Minoxidil PO is for refractory hypertension, not emergencies, due to delayed action. Sodium nitroprusside IV is preferred for rapid control, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Sodium nitroprusside IV is the drug of choice for hypertensive crisis, offering rapid, titratable blood pressure reduction. This aligns with urgent needs, making it the correct choice.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Nonselective agonists activate multiple receptors, not specific ones, leading to widespread effects. Specific processes are targeted by selective agonists, so this is incorrect for nonselective drugs.
Choice B reason: Nonselective agonists activate, not prevent, receptors. Prevention is the role of antagonists, so this is incorrect for a nonselective agonist’s mechanism of action.
Choice C reason: Nonselective agonists activate multiple receptor types, affecting many physiologic processes (e.g., epinephrine). This broad action is their hallmark, making it the correct choice for the drug’s effect.
Choice D reason: Preventing receptor activation describes antagonists, not agonists. Nonselective agonists stimulate multiple processes, so this is incorrect for the drug’s pharmacological action.
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