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A patient has had blood pressures of 150/95 and 148/90 mm Hg on two separate office visits. The patient reports a blood pressure of 145/92 mm Hg taken in an ambulatory setting. The patient’s diagnostic tests are all normal. The nurse will expect this patient’s provider to order

A.

An adrenergic neuron blocker

B.

A beta blocker

C.

Counseling on lifestyle changes

D.

An ACE inhibitor

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Adrenergic neuron blockers, like guanethidine, reduce blood pressure by inhibiting norepinephrine release. They are not first-line for stage 1 hypertension (140-159/90-99 mm Hg). Their side effects, like orthostatic hypotension, make them less suitable. Lifestyle changes are preferred initially for this patient’s mild elevation and normal diagnostic tests, making this choice inappropriate.

Choice B reason: Beta blockers, like atenolol, reduce heart rate and cardiac output, lowering blood pressure. They are not first-line for stage 1 hypertension without compelling indications (e.g., heart failure). Guidelines recommend lifestyle modifications first for this patient’s blood pressure range, as they effectively reduce risk without medication side effects, making this choice less suitable.

Choice C reason: For stage 1 hypertension (140-159/90-99 mm Hg) with normal diagnostic tests, guidelines recommend lifestyle changes, such as diet, exercise, and weight loss, as first-line treatment. These reduce blood pressure by improving vascular health and reducing cardiac strain, offering a low-risk approach to manage mild hypertension effectively, making this the correct choice.

Choice D reason: ACE inhibitors, like lisinopril, block angiotensin II formation, reducing blood pressure. They are effective but not first-line for stage 1 hypertension without comorbidities. Lifestyle changes are prioritized to avoid medication side effects like cough or hyperkalemia, making this choice less appropriate for initial management in this patient.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Pentazocine is less effective for severe, chronic pain and has mixed agonist-antagonist effects. Fentanyl is stronger for opioid-tolerant patients, so this is incorrect.

Choice B reason: Hydrocodone is weaker than oxycodone and inadequate for severe, resistant pain. Fentanyl’s potency suits chronic cancer pain, so this is incorrect.

Choice C reason: Fentanyl transdermal is potent, long-acting, and ideal for severe, chronic cancer pain in opioid-tolerant patients. It’s appropriate here, making it the correct choice.

Choice D reason: Meperidine is not recommended for chronic pain due to neurotoxic metabolites. Fentanyl is safer and more effective, so this is incorrect.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Dry cough is a common, not serious, side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin accumulation. While bothersome, it’s not life-threatening like angioedema. It often necessitates switching to an ARB, but calling it serious overstates the risk, making this choice incorrect.

Choice B reason: Dry cough occurs in 5-20% of ACE inhibitor users but doesn’t typically subside with continued use, as bradykinin accumulation persists. Patients often require a medication change (e.g., to ARBs), making the claim that it will subside over time inaccurate and incorrect.

Choice C reason: Dry cough is common but not universal in ACE inhibitor users, affecting 5-20% of patients due to variable bradykinin sensitivity. Stating it occurs in all patients is inaccurate, as many tolerate ACE inhibitors without cough, making this choice incorrect.

Choice D reason: Dry cough, caused by bradykinin buildup, affects some ACE inhibitor users and is uncomfortable, often requiring a switch to an ARB, which doesn’t affect bradykinin. This accurately reflects the side effect’s impact and management, making it the correct choice for the nurse’s response.

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