A patient has had blood pressures of 150/95 and 148/90 mm Hg on two separate office visits. The patient reports a blood pressure of 145/92 mm Hg taken in an ambulatory setting. The patient’s diagnostic tests are all normal. The nurse will expect this patient’s provider to order
An adrenergic neuron blocker
A beta blocker
Counseling on lifestyle changes
An ACE inhibitor
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Adrenergic neuron blockers, like guanethidine, reduce blood pressure by inhibiting norepinephrine release. They are not first-line for stage 1 hypertension (140-159/90-99 mm Hg). Their side effects, like orthostatic hypotension, make them less suitable. Lifestyle changes are preferred initially for this patient’s mild elevation and normal diagnostic tests, making this choice inappropriate.
Choice B reason: Beta blockers, like atenolol, reduce heart rate and cardiac output, lowering blood pressure. They are not first-line for stage 1 hypertension without compelling indications (e.g., heart failure). Guidelines recommend lifestyle modifications first for this patient’s blood pressure range, as they effectively reduce risk without medication side effects, making this choice less suitable.
Choice C reason: For stage 1 hypertension (140-159/90-99 mm Hg) with normal diagnostic tests, guidelines recommend lifestyle changes, such as diet, exercise, and weight loss, as first-line treatment. These reduce blood pressure by improving vascular health and reducing cardiac strain, offering a low-risk approach to manage mild hypertension effectively, making this the correct choice.
Choice D reason: ACE inhibitors, like lisinopril, block angiotensin II formation, reducing blood pressure. They are effective but not first-line for stage 1 hypertension without comorbidities. Lifestyle changes are prioritized to avoid medication side effects like cough or hyperkalemia, making this choice less appropriate for initial management in this patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: For 10 mg at 5 mg/mL: 10 ÷ 5 = 2 mL. Choice A (0.5 mL) delivers 2.5 mg (0.5 × 5), underdosing Compazine, which may fail to control nausea or psychosis, making this choice incorrect for the prescribed dose.
Choice B reason: The correct volume is 10 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 2 mL. Choice B (4 mL) delivers 20 mg (4 × 5), overdosing Compazine, risking extrapyramidal symptoms or sedation, making this choice incorrect and potentially harmful for safe administration.
Choice C reason: For 10 mg, the volume is 2 mL (10 ÷ 5). Choice C (1 mL) delivers 5 mg (1 × 5), underdosing Compazine, which could be ineffective for nausea or psychiatric symptoms, making this choice inadequate for the ordered dose.
Choice D reason: Calculating 10 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 2 mL accurately delivers the ordered 10 mg of Compazine (prochlorperazine) for nausea or psychosis. This ensures therapeutic efficacy without overdose, aligning with safe intramuscular administration, making this the correct choice.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Normal BP is below 120/80 mm Hg. These readings, with diastolic consistently above 90 mm Hg, indicate hypertension, not normal BP, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Isolated systolic hypertension involves systolic BP ≥130 mm Hg with diastolic <80 mm Hg. High diastolic readings rule this out, so this is incorrect for the pattern.
Choice C reason: BP readings above 130/80 mm Hg, especially with diastolic ≥90 mm Hg, classify as hypertension (Stage 2). This matches the patient’s pattern, making it the correct category.
Choice D reason: Prehypertension is 120–129/<80 mm Hg. These readings exceed this with high diastolic values, indicating hypertension, so this is incorrect for the BP pattern.
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