A patient is taking a beta 1-adrenergic drug to improve the stroke volume of the heart. The nurse caring for this patient knows that this drug acts by increasing:
Myocardial contractility
Cardiac afterload
Venous return
Cardiac preload
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Beta 1-adrenergic drugs, like dobutamine, stimulate beta-1 receptors in the heart, increasing cyclic AMP and calcium influx, enhancing myocardial contractility. This increases stroke volume by strengthening heart contractions, directly improving cardiac output, making this the correct choice for the drug’s mechanism of action.
Choice B reason: Cardiac afterload is the resistance the heart pumps against. Beta 1-adrenergic drugs don’t directly reduce afterload; they increase contractility. Increasing afterload would decrease stroke volume, opposing the drug’s purpose, making this choice incorrect for the drug’s effect on stroke volume.
Choice C reason: Venous return affects preload, not directly influenced by beta 1-adrenergic drugs. These drugs enhance contractility, increasing stroke volume independently of venous return. While preload impacts output, it’s not the primary mechanism of beta-1 stimulation, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D reason: Cardiac preload is the initial stretch of the heart, influenced by venous return. Beta 1-adrenergic drugs increase contractility, not preload, to boost stroke volume. Preload changes are secondary and not the primary action of these drugs, making this choice incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hydrochlorothiazide is for chronic hypertension, not acute pulmonary edema. Furosemide acts rapidly to relieve fluid overload, so this is incorrect for emergency use.
Choice B reason: Furosemide is the drug of choice for pulmonary edema, rapidly reducing fluid overload and relieving symptoms like frothy sputum. This is the correct choice.
Choice C reason: Mannitol is used for cerebral edema, not pulmonary edema. Furosemide targets acute fluid overload in the lungs, so this is incorrect for this scenario.
Choice D reason: Spironolactone is for chronic heart failure, not acute pulmonary edema. Furosemide’s rapid diuresis is needed, so this is incorrect for immediate treatment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pulse oximetry of 95% is near normal and not a major concern for beta agonist administration. Tachycardia is more critical due to cardiac stimulation, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: A respiratory rate of 22 is slightly elevated but acceptable in respiratory conditions. Beta agonists target airways, but tachycardia is a greater risk, making this incorrect.
Choice C reason: Blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg is low, but beta agonists primarily affect heart rate. A pre-existing tachycardia is more concerning contraindication, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: A heart rate of 120 beats/min is concerning, as beta agonists increase heart rate, risking arrhythmias. This requires evaluation before administration, making it the correct concern.
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