A patient has been diagnosed with Raynaud's disease and asks the nurse what occurs with this disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
"Arteriolar vasoconstriction occurs, most often in the fingertips with symptoms of coldness, pain, and pale skin."
"Peripheral vasospasm occurs in the lower limbs as a result of valve damage from long-standing venous stasis."
"Arterial vessel occlusion is caused by many clots that develop in the heart and are carried to the bloodstream."
"Thrombosis related to prolonged vasoconstriction caused by overexposure to the cold occurs."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "Arteriolar vasoconstriction occurs, most often in the fingertips with symptoms of coldness, pain, and pale skin.": Raynaud disease involves episodes of vasospasm in the small arteries and arterioles, primarily in the fingers and toes, leading to symptoms like coldness, pain, pallor, and sometimes color changes in the skin.
B. "Peripheral vasospasm occurs in the lower limbs as a result of valve damage from long-standing venous stasis.": This description is more characteristic of venous insufficiency or chronic venous stasis rather than Raynaud disease, which affects the small arteries in the extremities.
C. "Arterial vessel occlusion is caused by many clots that develop in the heart and are carried to the bloodstream.": This describes an embolic event rather than the vasospasm typical of Raynaud disease.
D. "Thrombosis related to prolonged vasoconstriction caused by overexposure to the cold occurs.": While exposure to cold can trigger Raynaud's symptoms, the primary issue is episodic vasospasm, not thrombosis. Raynaud’s is not characterized by blood clot formation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
A. "It is caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland.": This statement is incorrect as a tumor of the adrenal gland (like a pheochromocytoma) would cause secondary hypertension, not primary hypertension, which has no identifiable cause.
B. "The cause can be identified with magnetic resonance imaging.": Primary hypertension does not have a specific identifiable cause, and imaging like MRI cannot pinpoint a cause for it. This statement indicates a misunderstanding.
C. "The cause is unknown.": This statement is correct for primary hypertension, as it is characterized by having no identifiable underlying cause.
D. "There are no tests to identify the cause.": This is correct for primary hypertension since it has no specific identifiable cause. The diagnosis is based on excluding other potential causes of secondary hypertension.
E. "An arteriogram will show why hypertension is occurring.": An arteriogram might identify blockages or other issues in the arteries, but it will not show the cause of primary hypertension. This indicates a need for further teaching.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Reducing risk for fall: Patients with fractures are at higher risk for falls, which can exacerbate their injuries or cause new ones. Ensuring the environment is safe and assisting with mobility can reduce this risk.
B. Healing the surrounding tissue: While important, the primary focus in the acute phase is stabilizing the fracture itself. Healing surrounding tissue is more of a long-term goal and indirectly supported by proper fracture management.
C. Alignment of the bone: Proper alignment is crucial for healing. It ensures that the bone ends are in the correct position to heal properly and reduces the risk of complications such as malunion.
D. Immobilization of the leg: Immobilization is necessary to maintain bone alignment and prevent further injury or displacement of the fracture.
E. Preventing pain: Pain management is a fundamental aspect of patient care for fractures, as it not only provides comfort but also aids in compliance with treatment and rehabilitation.
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