A patient has been taking phenobarbital for 2 weeks as part of his therapy for epilepsy. He tells the nurse that he feels tense and that the least little thing bothers him now. Which is the correct explanation for this problem?
These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks.
The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects.
This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress.
This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness.
The Correct Answer is C
A. These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks: While some adverse effects of phenobarbital may diminish over time, the symptoms described by the patient are more likely related to its impact on REM sleep.
B. The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects: Stopping phenobarbital abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential rebound seizures; discontinuation should be done gradually under medical supervision.
C. This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress: Phenobarbital is known to disrupt REM sleep, leading to emotional lability, irritability, and difficulty coping with stress.
D. This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness: Phenobarbital actually decreases REM sleep, which can lead to disturbances in sleep patterns and mood changes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. CT of the brain can proceed regardless of atropine administration, as it does not directly affect the assessment of brain stem reflexes.
B. Electroencephalogram (EEG) can also proceed regardless of atropine administration, as it evaluates brain electrical activity rather than brain stem reflexes.
C. Assessment of brain stem reflexes should be postponed until all atropine is excreted and no
longer exerting its effects. Atropine can mask or alter the pupillary response and other brain stem reflexes, such as gag reflex and cough reflex, which are important indicators of neurological function.
D. Pupil response assessment should be postponed until atropine effects have dissipated, as
atropine can cause pupillary dilation, which may interfere with accurate assessment of pupil size and reactivity
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Partial agonists like nalbuphine have a lower dependency potential than full agonists. This means they are less likely to lead to physical dependence or tolerance when used for pain
management.
B. Partial agonists do not necessarily have a higher potency than agonists. Potency refers to the dose of a drug required to produce a specific effect, which can vary among different drugs regardless of their classification as agonists or partial agonists.
C. Partial agonists like nalbuphine are not typically used for their anti-inflammatory effects.
They are primarily used for pain management.
D. Partial agonists like nalbuphine are not typically used to reverse the effects of opiates. They may be used in certain situations to manage opioid-induced side effects or in cases of opioid overdose, but their primary indication is for pain management.
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