A patient has been taking phenobarbital for 2 weeks as part of his therapy for epilepsy. He tells the nurse that he feels tense and that the least little thing bothers him now. Which is the correct explanation for this problem?
These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks.
The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects.
This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress.
This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness.
The Correct Answer is C
A. These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks: While some adverse effects of phenobarbital may diminish over time, the symptoms described by the patient are more likely related to its impact on REM sleep.
B. The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects: Stopping phenobarbital abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential rebound seizures; discontinuation should be done gradually under medical supervision.
C. This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress: Phenobarbital is known to disrupt REM sleep, leading to emotional lability, irritability, and difficulty coping with stress.
D. This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness: Phenobarbital actually decreases REM sleep, which can lead to disturbances in sleep patterns and mood changes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Getting up slowly from a sitting or lying position is an important aspect of patient education for individuals taking tamsulosin, as this medication can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness or fainting upon standing up quickly.
B. Tamsulosin is often taken once daily, approximately 30 minutes after the same meal each day, typically breakfast or the first meal of the day. Taking it with breakfast is not a requirement for
its efficacy.
C. There is no need to restrict fluids while on tamsulosin therapy. In fact, adequate hydration is generally encouraged.
D. Tamsulosin is not typically associated with causing hypertension. Instead, it is more commonly associated with hypotension, especially orthostatic hypotension.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Assessing the WBC count is not directly related to the administration of a nonselective adrenergic blocker. These medications primarily affect the cardiovascular system.
B. Assessing pulse and blood pressure is crucial before administering a nonselective adrenergic blocker. These medications can cause bradycardia and hypotension as side effects, so it's
important to ensure the client's baseline pulse and blood pressure are within acceptable ranges before giving the medication.
C. Assessing bowel sounds is not directly related to the administration of a nonselective adrenergic blocker. These medications primarily affect the cardiovascular system.
D. Assessing serum sodium and potassium levels is not directly related to the administration of a nonselective adrenergic blocker. These medications primarily affect the cardiovascular system.
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