A patient has had an overdose of an intravenous cholinergic drug. The nurse expects to administer which drug as an antidote?
Dobutamine
Atropine sulfate
Atenolol
Bethanechol
The Correct Answer is B
A. Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic drug used to increase cardiac output in conditions such as heart failure. It is not an antidote for cholinergic drug overdose.
B. Atropine sulfate is the antidote for cholinergic drug overdose. It acts as a competitive antagonist to acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors, counteracting the effects of excessive cholinergic stimulation.
C. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to manage hypertension and certain cardiac conditions. It is not an antidote for cholinergic drug overdose.
D. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agonist used to stimulate bladder contractions in urinary retention. It is not an antidote for cholinergic drug overdose; in fact, it would exacerbate cholinergic effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The drug level is at a toxic level, and the dosage needs to be reduced. Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range, and levels above 20 mcg/mL are considered to be in the toxic range.
Symptoms of phenytoin toxicity can include nystagmus, ataxia, slurred speech, and confusion. Therefore, if a patient's phenytoin level is 23 mcg/mL, the nurse should be concerned about potential toxicity and consult with the healthcare provider to adjust the dosage.
B. The patient's seizures should be under control if she is also taking a second antiepileptic drug.
While combination therapy with multiple antiepileptic drugs can help control seizures, a phenytoin level of 23 mcg/mL is still concerning for toxicity and requires intervention.
C. The patient is at risk for seizures because the drug level is not at a therapeutic level. A phenytoin level of 23 mcg/mL is actually above the therapeutic range and is more indicative of toxicity rather than subtherapeutic levels.
D. The patient's seizures should be under control because this is a therapeutic drug level. A phenytoin level of 23 mcg/mL is not within the therapeutic range but rather in the toxic range, so the patient may experience symptoms of toxicity rather than having adequate seizure control.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Menstrual cramps: Feverfew is commonly used as an herbal remedy for menstrual cramps and migraines due to its purported anti-inflammatory and smooth muscle relaxant properties.
B. Constipation: Feverfew is not typically used to treat constipation.
C. Muscle aches: While feverfew may have some anti-inflammatory properties, it is not commonly used specifically for muscle aches.
D. Incision pain after surgery: Feverfew is not typically used to manage post-surgical pain.
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