A patient has been taking donepezil for 2 weeks as part of the treatment for early stages of Alzheimer's disease. Her daughter calls the prescriber's office and is upset because "Mother has not improved one bit!" Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
"Increase the dosage to twice daily."
"Take the medication on an empty stomach for Improved absorption."
"It takes time for the cure to take effect."
"It may take up to 6 weeks to see an improvement."
The Correct Answer is D
A. "Increase the dosage to twice daily.": Changing the dosage should only be done under the guidance of the prescriber based on clinical assessment, not in response to perceived lack of improvement.
B. "Take the medication on an empty stomach for improved absorption.": While taking donepezil with or without food may affect absorption, this instruction is not directly related to the timing of improvement in symptoms.
C. "It takes time for the cure to take effect.": Alzheimer's disease cannot be cured, and this statement may provide false hope to the patient's daughter.
D. "It may take up to 6 weeks to see an improvement.": This response provides accurate
information about the expected timeline for therapeutic effects of donepezil and encourages patience in observing improvement.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Dantrolene injection, a skeletal muscle relaxant: The patient is exhibiting signs of malignant hyperthermia, a potentially life-threatening complication of anesthesia. Dantrolene is the primary treatment for malignant hyperthermia as it acts as a skeletal muscle relaxant, reducing muscle rigidity and hypermetabolism associated with the condition.
B. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and intubation: While the patient is experiencing significant physiological distress, initiating CPR and intubation would be premature without first addressing the underlying cause, which appears to be malignant hyperthermia.
C. An anticholinesterase drug, such as neostigmine: Anticholinesterase drugs like neostigmine are not indicated for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia.
D. Naltrexone hydrochloride injection, an opioid reversal drug: Naltrexone is used for opioid overdose reversal and is not appropriate for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat ADHD.
Administering it at bedtime may interfere with sleep onset and lead to insomnia. It's important to follow the prescribed dosing schedule to optimize symptom control during waking hours while minimizing adverse effects on sleep.
B. The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption: While taking
methylphenidate with meals may help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the timing of administration relative to bedtime is more relevant to address in this scenario.
C. The medication should not be taken until he is at school: Delaying medication until the child is at school may result in inadequate symptom control during the morning when ADHD
symptoms are often most problematic.
D. She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately: Administering methylphenidate at bedtime is not appropriate and may lead to insomnia rather than optimizing symptom control during the day.
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