A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms.
The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment?
Bupropion
Methadone
Disulfiram
Phenobarbital
The Correct Answer is B
A. Bupropion is primarily used as an antidepressant and smoking cessation aid. It is not typically used for opioid withdrawal.
B. Methadone is a synthetic opioid agonist commonly used in the management of opioid withdrawal. It helps to alleviate withdrawal symptoms and can be used as part of a long-term maintenance program for opioid dependence.
C. Disulfiram is used in the treatment of alcohol dependence by creating unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed. It is not indicated for opioid withdrawal.
D. Phenobarbital is a barbiturate with sedative and anticonvulsant properties. While it can be used to manage certain withdrawal symptoms, such as seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal, it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Do slow position changes to avoid falls from lowering blood pressure: This is not the priority teaching point for an anticholinergic medication. While some anticholinergics can cause orthostatic hypotension, the risk of urinary retention is a more significant concern.
B. If you feel short of breath, use a rescue inhaler: This instruction is unrelated to the use of anticholinergic medication and may be more relevant for patients with emphysema.
C. "If possible, try to avoid rooms that are cold.": Avoiding cold rooms is not directly related to the use of anticholinergic medication. The priority teaching point should address potential adverse effects specific to the medication.
D. "Make sure to seek care immediately if you're not able to urinate.": Anticholinergic medications can exacerbate urinary retention, particularly in older adults with benign prostatic hyperplasia. It's crucial for the patient to understand the importance of seeking medical attention if they experience difficulty urinating.
Correct Answer is ["50"]
Explanation
Gtt/min= Volume per hour× Drop factor/ Time in minutes per hour Given:
Volume per hour = 150 mL Drop factor = 20 gtt/mL
Time in minutes per hour = 60 minutes Gtt/min= 150mL/hr×20gtt/mL/60min/hr Gtt/min=50
Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 50 gtt/min
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