A patient is prescribed long-acting insulin (glargine) for basal control of blood glucose. Which statement by the nurse is correct when educating the patient?

"This insulin peaks in 2-4 hours."

"You will need to take this insulin with your meals."

"This insulin provides a steady level of insulin over 24 hours."

"You will need to administer this insulin three times a day."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. This insulin does not peak like short-acting insulin; glargine provides a consistent release of insulin without a peak effect.

B. Long-acting insulin is not meant to be taken with meals, as it provides basal control and is typically taken once daily, not with each meal.

C. This statement is correct; glargine provides a steady level of insulin over 24 hours, helping to maintain consistent blood glucose levels throughout the day and night.

D. Long-acting insulin is usually administered once daily, so stating that it must be given three times a day is incorrect.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. heart rate is not the primary concern when assessing the interaction between NSAIDs and loop diuretics.

B. blood pressure is correct; the combination of an NSAID and a loop diuretic can lead to fluid retention, potentially elevating blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial in this context.

C. cognition is not directly impacted by the combination of these medications.

D. assessment for signs of bleeding is important when taking NSAIDs due to their effect on platelet function, but the more immediate concern is the potential fluid retention affecting blood pressure.

A. Hypotension B. Bradycardia C. Chest pain D. Nausea

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The combination of nitroglycerin and sildenafil can lead to severe hypotension due to the vasodilatory effects of both medications. This is the most critical adverse reaction the nurse should anticipate.

B. Bradycardia is not a direct effect of this combination; rather, hypotension is a more significant concern.

C. Chest pain may occur if hypotension leads to inadequate perfusion, but it is not a direct adverse effect of the drug interaction.

D. Nausea can occur with various medications, but it is not specifically linked to the interaction between nitroglycerin and sildenafil.

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A patient is prescribed long-acting insulin (glargine) for basal control of blood glucose. Which statement by the nurse is correct when educating the patient?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client's current drug regimen includes a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) and a loop diuretic. What assessment should the nurse consequently prioritize?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

What adverse reaction does the nurse anticipate if a client takes nitroglycerin with sildenafil?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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