A patient is scheduled to receive Pergonal (Menotropins) injections as part of an infertility treatment before in vitro fertilization.
What is the anticipated effect of this medication?
Extension of the luteal phase.
Induction of ovulation.
Inhibition of menstruation.
Enhancement of cervical mucus production.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Pergonal (Menotropins) does not extend the luteal phase. The luteal phase is a part of the menstrual cycle, and Pergonal does not have a direct effect on this phase.
Choice B rationale
Pergonal (Menotropins) is used to induce ovulation in women as part of an infertility treatment before in vitro fertilization. It contains follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), which stimulate the ovaries to produce eggs.
Choice C rationale
Pergonal (Menotropins) does not inhibit menstruation. It is used to stimulate the ovaries to produce eggs, not to stop the menstrual cycle.
Choice D rationale
Pergonal (Menotropins) does not enhance cervical mucus production. Its primary function is to stimulate the ovaries to produce eggs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hypothermia, decreased muscle tone, and a weak sucking reflex are not typically exhibited by newborns whose mothers are substance abusers. These symptoms could be indicative of other medical conditions.
Choice B rationale
Excessive sleep, a weak cry, and a diminished grasp reflex are not the most common behaviors exhibited by newborns of substance-abusing mothers.
Choice C rationale
Circumoral cyanosis, a hyperactive Babinski reflex, and constipation are not typically seen in newborns of substance-abusing mothers. These symptoms could be indicative of other medical conditions.
Choice D rationale
Newborns of substance-abusing mothers often exhibit decreased amounts of sleep, a hyperactive Moro reflex, and difficulty feeding. These symptoms are related to withdrawal from the substances the mother was using during pregnancy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A (Prepare for a vaginal delivery) is incorrect. Vaginal delivery is generally not recommended for women with active genital herpes lesions present during labor due to the high risk of transmitting the virus to the newborn. This risk is especially high when the mother experiences a primary infection (first outbreak) during the third trimester or has visible lesions at the time of delivery.
Choice B (Administer antiviral medication) is partially correct. While antiviral medications can be helpful in managing and potentially shortening outbreaks, they alone are not enough to prevent transmission during delivery. Antiviral medication can be used in combination with cesarean delivery to further reduce the risk of transmission.
Choice C (Prepare for a cesarean delivery) is correct. A cesarean delivery is the preferred method of delivery for women with active genital herpes lesions present during labor because it significantly reduces the risk of the virus being transmitted to the newborn. This risk can be as high as 50% during vaginal delivery with active lesions, while the risk with cesarean delivery is significantly lower, typically around 1% or less.
Choice D (Discharge the patient) is incorrect. Discharging a patient in active labor with active genital herpes lesions is not a safe or appropriate course of action. The patient needs to be carefully monitored and managed in a healthcare setting to minimize the risk of transmission to the newborn and ensure the safety of both mother and baby.
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