A patient is scheduled to start taking insulin glargine (Lantus). On the care plan, the nurse should include which of these outcomes related to the therapeutic effects of the medication?
Mealtime coverage of blood glucose
Blood glucose control for 24 hours
Less frequent blood glucose monitoring
Peak effect achieved in 2 to 4 hours
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Glargine provides basal, not insulin, coverage; meal coverage. It maintains steady glucose control, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Insulin glargine offers 24-hour basal glucose control, stabilizing blood sugar without peaks. This is its primary effect, making it the correct outcome.
Choice C reason: Glargine requires regular monitoring, not less frequent monitoring, to ensure control. This is incorrect for the therapeutic outcome.
Choice D reason: Glargine has no peak, unlike short-acting insulins, with effects lasting 24 hours. A 2–4 hour peak is incorrect, so incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, promotes potassium excretion, risking hypokalemia. The patient’s potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) is below normal (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), indicating hypokalemia, which can cause arrhythmias. Administering Lasix without addressing this could worsen the electrolyte imbalance, making this choice unsafe and incorrect.
Choice B reason: Oxygen administration addresses respiratory issues, not electrolyte imbalances like hypokalemia (3.1 mEq/L) caused by furosemide. There’s no indication of hypoxia in the lab results or scenario. This action doesn’t correct the potassium deficit or prevent further depletion, making it irrelevant and incorrect.
Choice C reason: Furosemide exacerbates hypokalemia (patient’s potassium: 3.1 mEq/L), risking cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Holding the dose prevents further potassium loss, and notifying the physician allows for correction (e.g., potassium supplements) and reassessment of therapy, making this the safest and most appropriate action.
Choice D reason: A 24-hour urine collection assesses renal function or output but doesn’t address the immediate concern of hypokalemia (3.1 mEq/L) caused by furosemide. This test is irrelevant to correcting the electrolyte imbalance or preventing further depletion, making it an inappropriate action in this scenario.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Metoprolol (beta-blocker) and furosemide (loop diuretic) are commonly used in heart failure. Furosemide may lower potassium, counteracting hyperkalemia (5.5 mEq/L), and metoprolol doesn’t significantly affect potassium. This combination poses less risk for hyperkalemia exacerbation, making it less concerning than potassium-sparing combinations.
Choice B reason: Furosemide promotes potassium excretion, potentially reducing hyperkalemia (5.5 mEq/L), while enalapril (ACE inhibitor) may increase potassium. However, furosemide’s effect often offsets enalapril’s, making this combination less likely to worsen hyperkalemia significantly compared to two potassium-sparing drugs, so this choice is less critical.
Choice C reason: Captopril (ACE inhibitor) and spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic) both increase potassium levels by reducing aldosterone activity, exacerbating hyperkalemia (5.5 mEq/L). In heart failure, this combination risks severe hyperkalemia, causing arrhythmias, making it the most concerning interaction requiring close monitoring or adjustment.
Choice D reason: Amlodipine (calcium channel blocker) and propranolol (beta-blocker) primarily affect blood pressure and heart rate, not potassium levels. Their interaction may cause bradycardia or hypotension but doesn’t worsen hyperkalemia (5.5 mEq/L), making this combination less concerning for the patient’s current electrolyte status.
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