The healthcare provider orders Valium 8 mg IV now. The concentration available is 5 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive?

1.4 mL

1.8 mL

1.2 mL

1.6 mL

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: To calculate the volume, divide the ordered dose (8 mg) by the concentration (5 mg/mL): 8 ÷ 5 = 1.6 mL. Choice A (1.4 mL) underestimates the volume, delivering only 7 mg (1.4 × 5), which is insufficient for the prescribed dose, making it incorrect for accurate medication administration.

Choice B reason: Calculating 8 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL yields 1.6 mL. Choice B (1.8 mL) would deliver 9 mg (1.8 × 5), exceeding the ordered dose. This overdose could increase the risk of sedation or respiratory depression, as Valium (diazepam) is a benzodiazepine with potent CNS effects, making this choice incorrect.

Choice C reason: The correct volume is 8 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 1.6 mL. Choice C (1.2 mL) delivers only 6 mg (1.2 × 5), which is below the prescribed dose. This underdose could result in inadequate therapeutic effects, such as insufficient anxiety relief or seizure control, making it an incorrect choice.

Choice D reason: Dividing the ordered dose (8 mg) by the concentration (5 mg/mL) gives 8 ÷ 5 = 1.6 mL. This volume accurately delivers the prescribed 8 mg of Valium, ensuring therapeutic efficacy for conditions like anxiety or seizures while minimizing risks of over- or under-dosing, making it the correct choice.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Glargine provides basal, not insulin, coverage; meal coverage. It maintains steady glucose control, so this is incorrect.

Choice B reason: Insulin glargine offers 24-hour basal glucose control, stabilizing blood sugar without peaks. This is its primary effect, making it the correct outcome.

Choice C reason: Glargine requires regular monitoring, not less frequent monitoring, to ensure control. This is incorrect for the therapeutic outcome.

Choice D reason: Glargine has no peak, unlike short-acting insulins, with effects lasting 24 hours. A 2–4 hour peak is incorrect, so incorrect.

A. Excreted in hydrolyzed form in the feces to reduce drug toxicity. B. Transported across the renal tubules to be excreted in the urine. C. Recycled within the enterohepatic recirculation to remain in the body longer. D. Reabsorbed from the urine into the renal circulation to minimize drug loss.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Glucuronidation does not primarily involve fecal excretion; it conjugates drugs for urinary excretion. Hydrolysis is unrelated, and fecal routes are secondary, so this is incorrect for glucuronidation’s role.

Choice B reason: Glucuronidation conjugates drugs, making them water-soluble for transport across renal tubules and excretion in urine. This is the primary mechanism, making it the correct choice for drug elimination.

Choice C reason: Enterohepatic recirculation involves some drugs, but glucuronidation aims for excretion, not recycling. Prolonging drug presence is not the goal, so this is incorrect for the process.

Choice D reason: Glucuronidation facilitates excretion, not reabsorption. Reabsorbing drugs would counteract its purpose of eliminating metabolites, making this incorrect compared to urinary excretion.

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The healthcare provider orders Valium 8 mg IV now. The concentration available is 5 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

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Correct Answer is B

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