The healthcare provider orders Valium 8 mg IV now. The concentration available is 5 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive?
1.4 mL
1.8 mL
1.2 mL
1.6 mL
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: To calculate the volume, divide the ordered dose (8 mg) by the concentration (5 mg/mL): 8 ÷ 5 = 1.6 mL. Choice A (1.4 mL) underestimates the volume, delivering only 7 mg (1.4 × 5), which is insufficient for the prescribed dose, making it incorrect for accurate medication administration.
Choice B reason: Calculating 8 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL yields 1.6 mL. Choice B (1.8 mL) would deliver 9 mg (1.8 × 5), exceeding the ordered dose. This overdose could increase the risk of sedation or respiratory depression, as Valium (diazepam) is a benzodiazepine with potent CNS effects, making this choice incorrect.
Choice C reason: The correct volume is 8 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 1.6 mL. Choice C (1.2 mL) delivers only 6 mg (1.2 × 5), which is below the prescribed dose. This underdose could result in inadequate therapeutic effects, such as insufficient anxiety relief or seizure control, making it an incorrect choice.
Choice D reason: Dividing the ordered dose (8 mg) by the concentration (5 mg/mL) gives 8 ÷ 5 = 1.6 mL. This volume accurately delivers the prescribed 8 mg of Valium, ensuring therapeutic efficacy for conditions like anxiety or seizures while minimizing risks of over- or under-dosing, making it the correct choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, reduces intracranial pressure by drawing fluid from brain tissue into the bloodstream. This is its primary use in head injuries, making it correct.
Choice B reason: Mannitol is not primarily for peripheral edema; it targets cerebral edema. Furosemide is used for peripheral fluid, so this is incorrect for mannitol’s purpose.
Choice C reason: Mannitol removes fluid, not restores it. extracellular fluid, aiming to reduce brain swelling. Restoring fluid is opposite its effect, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Mannitol increases renal perfusion by promoting diuresis, not reducing it. Its main goal is intracranial pressure reduction, so this is incorrect.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pseudoephedrine, a decongestant, relieves nasal congestion by vasoconstriction but doesn’t address inflammation or histamine-mediated symptoms like sneezing or itching in rhinitis. It’s less effective than intranasal corticosteroids, which target the underlying allergic response, making this choice less optimal for comprehensive rhinitis treatment.
Choice B reason: Intranasal cromolyn sodium stabilizes mast cells, reducing histamine release, but it’s less effective than corticosteroids for rhinitis. Atrovent (ipratropium) is incorrectly referenced here, as it treats rhinorrhea, not inflammation. Corticosteroids like fluticasone are preferred, making this choice incorrect for optimal treatment.
Choice C reason: Propranolol, a beta-blocker, treats hypertension and cardiac conditions, not rhinitis. It has no effect on allergic inflammation, histamine, or nasal congestion. Its use in rhinitis could worsen symptoms by causing bronchoconstriction in asthmatics, making this choice inappropriate and incorrect.
Choice D reason: Fluticasone propionate, an intranasal corticosteroid, reduces inflammation, edema, and histamine effects in seasonal and perennial rhinitis. It targets the allergic cascade, decreasing nasal congestion, sneezing, and itching, making it the most effective and guideline-recommended treatment, thus the correct choice for rhinitis management.
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