Two nurses are discussing the theories of drug-receptor interaction. Which statements are true regarding the affinity of a drug and for its receptor? (Select all that apply)
Affinity refers to the dosage form of a medication.
Drugs with low affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
Drugs with high affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
The affinity of a drug for its receptors is reflected in its potency.
Affinity refers to the strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor.
Correct Answer : C,D,E
Choice A reason: Affinity is not about dosage form but the strength of drug-receptor binding. Dosage is unrelated to receptor interaction, so this is incorrect for affinity’s definition.
Choice B reason: Low affinity means weak attraction to receptors, not strong. High affinity indicates strong binding, so this statement is incorrect.
Choice C reason: High affinity means strong attraction between drug and receptor, enhancing binding and effect. This is accurate, making it a correct choice.
Choice D reason: Affinity influences potency; higher affinity often means greater potency at lower doses. This relationship is correct, making it a correct choice.
Choice E reason: Affinity is the strength of attraction between drug and receptor, a fundamental pharmacological concept. This definition is accurate, so this is a correct choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: For 10 mg at 5 mg/mL: 10 ÷ 5 = 2 mL. Choice A (0.5 mL) delivers 2.5 mg (0.5 × 5), underdosing Compazine, which may fail to control nausea or psychosis, making this choice incorrect for the prescribed dose.
Choice B reason: The correct volume is 10 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 2 mL. Choice B (4 mL) delivers 20 mg (4 × 5), overdosing Compazine, risking extrapyramidal symptoms or sedation, making this choice incorrect and potentially harmful for safe administration.
Choice C reason: For 10 mg, the volume is 2 mL (10 ÷ 5). Choice C (1 mL) delivers 5 mg (1 × 5), underdosing Compazine, which could be ineffective for nausea or psychiatric symptoms, making this choice inadequate for the ordered dose.
Choice D reason: Calculating 10 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 2 mL accurately delivers the ordered 10 mg of Compazine (prochlorperazine) for nausea or psychosis. This ensures therapeutic efficacy without overdose, aligning with safe intramuscular administration, making this the correct choice.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Beta blockers decrease renin release, reducing angiotensin II and aldosterone, which lowers blood pressure. This statement is accurate, reflecting correct understanding, so it does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Choice B reason: Beta blockers do not primarily decrease peripheral vascular resistance; they reduce heart rate and contractility. Peripheral resistance is more affected by alpha blockers or vasodilators, so this incorrect statement indicates a need for further teaching.
Choice C reason: Beta blockers reduce heart rate and myocardial contractility, decreasing cardiac output and blood pressure. This statement is correct, showing proper understanding, so it does not require additional teaching.
Choice D reason: While beta blockers do not directly block angiotensin II, they reduce its production by decreasing renin. The statement is imprecise but not entirely wrong, making it less indicative of a teaching need than choice B.
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