A patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes asks a nurse, “How does insulin normally work in my body?” The nurse explains that normal insulin has which action in the body?
It stimulates the liver to convert glycogen to glucose.
It promotes the synthesis of amino acids into glucose.
It stimulates the pancreas to reabsorb glucose.
It promotes the passage of glucose into cells for energy.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Insulin does not stimulate the liver to convert glycogen to glucose; instead, it promotes glycogenesis and inhibits glycogenolysis. By facilitating glucose uptake and storage, insulin lowers blood glucose levels, counteracting the process of glycogen breakdown into glucose, which is regulated by glucagon and other hormones, making this choice incorrect.
Choice B reason: Insulin does not promote amino acid synthesis into glucose (gluconeogenesis). It inhibits gluconeogenesis in the liver, reducing glucose production from amino acids and other substrates. By enhancing glucose uptake and storage, insulin maintains glucose homeostasis, making this option incorrect as it misrepresents insulin’s role in glucose metabolism.
Choice C reason: Insulin does not stimulate the pancreas to reabsorb glucose. The pancreas produces insulin, which acts on target tissues like muscle and fat to facilitate glucose uptake. Glucose reabsorption occurs in the kidneys, regulated by sodium-glucose cotransporters, not insulin, making this choice scientifically inaccurate for insulin’s function.
Choice D reason: Insulin promotes glucose uptake into cells by facilitating GLUT4 transporter translocation to cell membranes in muscle and adipose tissue. This allows glucose to enter cells for energy production via glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. This is insulin’s primary role in maintaining blood glucose homeostasis, making it the correct choice for its action.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: ACE inhibitors cause dry cough by inhibiting bradykinin breakdown, which accumulates and irritates the airways. ARBs block angiotensin II receptors without affecting bradykinin, eliminating this side effect. This makes ARBs a suitable alternative for patients experiencing cough, confirming this as the correct choice.
Choice B reason: Hyperkalemia occurs with both ACE inhibitors and ARBs due to reduced aldosterone production, which decreases potassium excretion. Both drug classes affect the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system similarly, so switching to an ARB does not eliminate this risk, making this choice incorrect for the question.
Choice C reason: Hypotension is a shared side effect of ACE inhibitors and ARBs, as both reduce blood pressure by inhibiting the renin-angiotensin system. ARBs block angiotensin II receptors, causing vasodilation similar to ACE inhibitors, so this side effect persists, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D reason: Angioedema, though rare, can occur with both ACE inhibitors and ARBs. While less common with ARBs, it’s not eliminated, as it may result from mechanisms beyond bradykinin accumulation. Switching to an ARB doesn’t guarantee avoidance of angioedema, making this choice incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hydrochlorothiazide can treat diabetes insipidus by reducing urine output via sodium reabsorption, but this is a secondary use. Its primary role is in hypertension management, as it lowers blood pressure by decreasing blood volume, making this choice less accurate.
Choice B reason: Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, is primarily used for hypertension by promoting sodium and water excretion, reducing blood volume and vascular resistance. It’s a first-line treatment per guidelines, effectively lowering blood pressure, making this the correct choice for its primary indication.
Choice C reason: Hydrochlorothiazide treats edema in heart failure or renal disease by increasing diuresis, but this is a secondary indication. Its primary use is hypertension, where it reduces blood pressure more consistently across patients, making this choice less accurate than hypertension.
Choice D reason: Hydrochlorothiazide doesn’t protect against postmenopausal osteoporosis. While thiazides reduce urinary calcium loss, they’re not indicated for osteoporosis prevention, unlike bisphosphonates. Their primary role is hypertension management, making this choice incorrect for the drug’s main therapeutic use.
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