A nurse is explaining drug metabolism to a nursing student who asks about glucuronidation. The nurse knows that this is a process that allows drugs to be:
Excreted in hydrolyzed form in the feces to reduce drug toxicity.
Transported across the renal tubules to be excreted in the urine.
Recycled within the enterohepatic recirculation to remain in the body longer.
Reabsorbed from the urine into the renal circulation to minimize drug loss.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Glucuronidation does not primarily involve fecal excretion; it conjugates drugs for urinary excretion. Hydrolysis is unrelated, and fecal routes are secondary, so this is incorrect for glucuronidation’s role.
Choice B reason: Glucuronidation conjugates drugs, making them water-soluble for transport across renal tubules and excretion in urine. This is the primary mechanism, making it the correct choice for drug elimination.
Choice C reason: Enterohepatic recirculation involves some drugs, but glucuronidation aims for excretion, not recycling. Prolonging drug presence is not the goal, so this is incorrect for the process.
Choice D reason: Glucuronidation facilitates excretion, not reabsorption. Reabsorbing drugs would counteract its purpose of eliminating metabolites, making this incorrect compared to urinary excretion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: To calculate volume, divide the ordered dose (40 mg) by the concentration (20 mg/mL): 40 ÷ 20 = 2 mL. Choice A (5 mL) delivers 100 mg (5 × 20), far exceeding the ordered dose, risking fluid and electrolyte imbalances, making it incorrect for safe administration.
Choice B reason: The correct volume is 40 mg ÷ 20 mg/mL = 2 mL. Choice B (6 mL) delivers 120 mg (6 × 20), significantly overdosing Lasix, which could cause severe dehydration, hypokalemia, or hypotension. This excessive dose is unsafe and incorrect for the prescribed administration.
Choice C reason: Calculating 40 mg ÷ 20 mg/mL yields 2 mL. Choice C (4 mL) delivers 80 mg (4 × 20), doubling the ordered dose. This could lead to excessive diuresis, electrolyte disturbances, or hypotension, making it an incorrect and potentially harmful choice for administration.
Choice D reason: Dividing the ordered dose (40 mg) by the concentration (20 mg/mL) gives 40 ÷ 20 = 2 mL. This volume accurately delivers the prescribed 40 mg of Lasix, ensuring effective diuresis for conditions like edema or heart failure while minimizing risks, making it the correct choice.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Theophylline is rarely used due to toxicity risks and less efficacy compared to beta-agonists. Increasing fluticasone dose doesn’t address acute exacerbations, as inhaled corticosteroids act slowly. Oxygen is appropriate, but this regimen lacks rapid-acting bronchodilators, making it inadequate for acute asthma management.
Choice B reason: Four puffs of albuterol via inhaler may be insufficient for severe asthma (90% saturation, wheezes). Theophylline is outdated, and nebulized treatments are more effective in emergencies. Oxygen is needed, but this combination lacks systemic steroids for inflammation, making it less optimal.
Choice C reason: Intravenous glucocorticoids reduce airway inflammation rapidly, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium provide synergistic bronchodilation, and oxygen corrects hypoxia (90% saturation). This aligns with guidelines for acute asthma exacerbations, addressing inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and oxygenation, making it the correct and comprehensive treatment choice.
Choice D reason: Intramuscular glucocorticoids are slower than intravenous for acute asthma. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta-agonist, is inappropriate for acute exacerbations, as it lacks rapid onset. Oxygen is needed, but this regimen doesn’t address immediate bronchoconstriction effectively, making it incorrect for emergency management.
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