A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed Carbidopa/Levodopa. Which of the following statements by the nurse is most accurate regarding this medication?
"You should abruptly stop taking this medication if you experience nausea."
"This medication may cause involuntary movements as a side effect."
"You should take this medication with a high-protein meal to enhance absorption."
"This medication will improve your memory and cognitive function."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "You should abruptly stop taking this medication if you experience nausea.": Abrupt discontinuation of Carbidopa/Levodopa can lead to serious complications such as neuroleptic malignant-like syndrome. Nausea is a common early side effect and should be reported, not used as a reason to stop the medication suddenly.
B. "This medication may cause involuntary movements as a side effect.": Long-term use of Carbidopa/Levodopa can lead to dyskinesias, which are involuntary, erratic movements. These occur due to fluctuating dopamine levels and are a common motor complication in advanced Parkinson's disease.
C. "You should take this medication with a high-protein meal to enhance absorption.": High-protein meals can actually interfere with Levodopa absorption because dietary amino acids compete with the drug for transport across the blood-brain barrier. Protein intake should be evenly distributed throughout the day.
D. "This medication will improve your memory and cognitive function.": Carbidopa/Levodopa is primarily used to treat motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease by replenishing dopamine. It has minimal impact on cognitive symptoms and is not indicated for memory enhancement.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Intramuscular Phenobarbital: While effective as an anticonvulsant, phenobarbital has a slower onset of action and is not the preferred first-line treatment for acute seizures. It is more commonly used in refractory cases or for long-term seizure control.
B. Intravenous Lorazepam: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and the first-line treatment for active seizures, especially status epilepticus. Given IV, it acts quickly by enhancing GABA activity, which calms neuronal excitability and stops seizure activity efficiently.
C. Oral Phenytoin: Phenytoin is used for long-term seizure prevention but is not effective for terminating ongoing seizures due to its slow onset when taken orally. It may be used after benzodiazepines to prevent seizure recurrence but not as the initial agent.
D. Subcutaneous Sumatriptan: Sumatriptan is used for treating acute migraines and has no role in managing seizures. It acts on serotonin receptors to relieve migraine symptoms, not to control abnormal neuronal discharges.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.": Oral anticoagulants like warfarin also do not dissolve existing clots. They work similarly to heparin by preventing the formation of new clots and allowing the body’s natural fibrinolytic mechanisms to break down existing ones over time.
B. "Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.": This is the most accurate explanation. Heparin is an anticoagulant that enhances antithrombin activity, inhibiting clotting factors and preventing clot propagation, but it does not actively lyse or dissolve clots.
C. "It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.": Heparin given intravenously has a rapid onset of action, often within minutes. Therapeutic levels are typically reached quickly with continuous infusion, so this statement is inaccurate.
D. "A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.": While pharmacists are valuable for drug-related questions, nurses are expected to provide basic patient education regarding medications, including mechanism of action, especially during bedside care.
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