A physician mentions to the nurse that a child with Attention Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) will begin medication therapy. The nurse should prepare a plan to teach the family about:
fluphenazine.
methylphenidate.
diazepam.
haloperidol.
The Correct Answer is B
B. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant commonly used in the treatment of ADHD. It works by increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, which helps improve attention, focus, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Teaching the family about methylphenidate would be appropriate as it is one of the most commonly prescribed medications for ADHD.
A. Fluphenazine is an antipsychotic medication primarily used to treat psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. It is not typically used as a first-line treatment for ADHD
C. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine medication primarily used to treat anxiety disorders, muscle spasms, and seizures. It is not indicated for the treatment of ADHD.
D. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication primarily used to treat psychotic disorders and severe behavioral disturbances. It is not a first-line treatment for ADHD.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ginkgo biloba has been reported to have anticoagulant properties and may potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, individuals taking warfarin should exercise caution when using ginkgo supplements and be monitored closely for signs of bleeding or changes in anticoagulant response.
B. Dandelion is not known to directly affect blood clotting or the action of warfarin.
C. Acai berry is a fruit commonly consumed for its potential antioxidant properties and health benefits. There is limited scientific evidence regarding the interaction between acai and warfarin.
D. Zinc supplementation is generally considered safe for most individuals and there is limited evidence to suggest that zinc significantly enhances the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Naloxone administration can rapidly reverse the effects of opioids, potentially leading to the rapid onset of opioid withdrawal symptoms, which may include respiratory depression. Therefore, close monitoring of the client's airway, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate is critical to ensure their safety and stability.
A. Assessing and managing the client's gastrointestinal status may be necessary depending on the clinical situation but it is not the most urgent concern immediately following naloxone administration.
C. Assessing urinary output and ensuring adequate fluid balance is important. However, it is not the highest priority immediately after naloxone administration.
D. Hyperpyrexia, or extremely high fever, is not a common immediate concern following naloxone administration.
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