Adllent, 1 day postpartum, is being monitored after a postpartum hemorrhage. Which of the following should the nurse report to the obstetrician?
Urine output of 200 mL for the past 8 hours.
Weight decrease of 2 pounds since delivery.
Pulse rate of 65 beats per minute.
Drop in hematocrit of 6% since admission.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice a) Urine output of 200 mL for the past 8 hours is incorrect because this is a normal finding for a postpartum woman. The average urine output for a healthy adult is about 800 to 2000 mL per day, which means about 100 to 250 mL per hour. Therefore, a urine output of 200 mL for the past 8 hours is within the normal range and does not indicate any complications.
Choice b) Weight decrease of 2 pounds since delivery is incorrect because this is also a normal finding for a postpartum woman. The weight loss is due to the expulsion of the placenta, amniotic fluid, and blood during delivery. A postpartum woman can expect to lose about 10 to 12 pounds immediately after giving birth, and another 5 pounds in the following weeks due to fluid loss. Therefore, a weight decrease of 2 pounds since delivery is not a cause for concern and does not need to be reported to the obstetrician.
Choice c) Pulse rate of 65 beats per minute is incorrect because this is also a normal finding for a postpartum woman. The normal resting pulse rate for an adult ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute, and it may decrease slightly after delivery due to blood loss and reduced cardiac output. Therefore, a pulse rate of 65 beats per minute is not indicative of any problems and does not require any intervention.
Choice d) Drop in hematocrit of 6% since admission is correct because this is an abnormal finding for a postpartum woman and suggests that she has developed anemia due to excessive blood loss. Hematocrit is the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, and it reflects the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. The normal hematocrit range for an adult female is 37% to 47%, and it may decrease slightly after delivery due to hemodilution. However, a drop in hematocrit of more than 10% from the baseline or below 30% indicates severe anemia and requires immediate treatment. Therefore, a drop in hematocrit of 6% since admission is a significant change that should be reported to the obstetrician as soon as possible.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A) Wrap the cord loosely with a sterile towel saturated with warm normal saline: This is not an appropriate action because it does not relieve the compression of the cord, which can cause fetal hypoxia and acidosis. The cord should be kept moist, but not wrapped around anything.
Choice B) Place a sterile gloved hand into the vagina and hold the presenting part off the cord while calling for assistance: This is the correct action because it prevents further descent of the fetus and reduces the pressure on the cord, which can improve fetal oxygenation and blood flow. The nurse should also elevate the woman's hips and place her in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position to reduce gravity. The nurse should call for immediate assistance and prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
Choice C) Increase the IV drip rate: This is not an appropriate action because it does not address the cause of the variable decelerations, which is cord compression. Increasing the IV fluid may cause fluid overload and worsen maternal and fetal outcomes.
Choice D) Administer oxygen to the woman via mask at 8 to 10 L/minute: This is not an appropriate action because it does not relieve the cord compression, which is the main threat to fetal well-being. Oxygen administration may be helpful in some cases of fetal distress, but it is not sufficient in this situation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), also known as aspirin, is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a preventive measure. ASA may reduce the risk of preeclampsia in some high-risk women by inhibiting platelet aggregation and improving blood flow to the placenta. However, ASA is not recommended for all pregnant women, as it may have adverse effects on the mother and the fetus, such as bleeding, premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, or fetal growth restriction.
Choice B: This is the correct answer because delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia, as it eliminates the source of the placental factors that cause the condition. Preeclampsia is a multisystem disorder characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is caused by abnormal placentation and endothelial dysfunction that lead to vasoconstriction, inflammation, and coagulation.
Delivery of the fetus and the placenta resolves these abnormalities and restores normal maternal physiology.
Choice C: This is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a cure for preeclampsia, but a symptomatic management. Antihypertensive medications may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of maternal complications, such as stroke, seizure, or organ damage. However, antihypertensive medications do not address the underlying cause of preeclampsia and do not improve fetal outcomes. Moreover, some antihypertensive medications are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects.
Choice D: This is incorrect because magnesium sulfate is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a prophylaxis for eclampsia. Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves seizures and coma. Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that prevents or treats eclamptic seizures by stabilizing neuronal membranes and reducing cerebral edema. However, magnesium sulfate does not lower blood pressure or improve renal function in preeclamptic women. It also has side effects such as nausea, flushing, headache, or respiratory depression.
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