Adllent, 1 day postpartum, is being monitored after a postpartum hemorrhage. Which of the following should the nurse report to the obstetrician?
Urine output of 200 mL for the past 8 hours.
Weight decrease of 2 pounds since delivery.
Pulse rate of 65 beats per minute.
Drop in hematocrit of 6% since admission.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice a) Urine output of 200 mL for the past 8 hours is incorrect because this is a normal finding for a postpartum woman. The average urine output for a healthy adult is about 800 to 2000 mL per day, which means about 100 to 250 mL per hour. Therefore, a urine output of 200 mL for the past 8 hours is within the normal range and does not indicate any complications.
Choice b) Weight decrease of 2 pounds since delivery is incorrect because this is also a normal finding for a postpartum woman. The weight loss is due to the expulsion of the placenta, amniotic fluid, and blood during delivery. A postpartum woman can expect to lose about 10 to 12 pounds immediately after giving birth, and another 5 pounds in the following weeks due to fluid loss. Therefore, a weight decrease of 2 pounds since delivery is not a cause for concern and does not need to be reported to the obstetrician.
Choice c) Pulse rate of 65 beats per minute is incorrect because this is also a normal finding for a postpartum woman. The normal resting pulse rate for an adult ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute, and it may decrease slightly after delivery due to blood loss and reduced cardiac output. Therefore, a pulse rate of 65 beats per minute is not indicative of any problems and does not require any intervention.
Choice d) Drop in hematocrit of 6% since admission is correct because this is an abnormal finding for a postpartum woman and suggests that she has developed anemia due to excessive blood loss. Hematocrit is the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, and it reflects the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. The normal hematocrit range for an adult female is 37% to 47%, and it may decrease slightly after delivery due to hemodilution. However, a drop in hematocrit of more than 10% from the baseline or below 30% indicates severe anemia and requires immediate treatment. Therefore, a drop in hematocrit of 6% since admission is a significant change that should be reported to the obstetrician as soon as possible.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice a) Breasts firm and tender is incorrect because this is not a sign of normal involution, but rather a sign of breast engorgement, which is a common problem in the first few weeks of breastfeeding. Breast engorgement occurs when thE breasts become overfilled with milk, causing them to feel hard, swollen, painful, and warm. It can be prevented or relieved by frequent and effective breastfeeding, applying warm or cold compresses, massaging the breasts, expressing some milk, and wearing a supportive bra.
Choice b) Episiotomy slightly red and puffy is incorrect because this is not a sign of normal involution, but rather a sign of inflammation or infection of the perineal wound. An episiotomy is a surgical cut made in the perineum (the area between the vagina and the anus) to enlarge the vaginal opening during delivery. It can take several weeks to heal and may cause pain, swelling, bruising, bleeding, or discharge. It can be cared for by keeping the area clean and dry, applying ice packs or witch hazel pads, taking painkillers or sitz baths, and avoiding constipation or straining.
Choice c) Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable is correct because this is a sign of normal involution, which is the process of the uterus returning to its pre-pregnancy size and shape after delivery. The fundus is the upper part of the uterus that can be felt through the abdomen. Immediately after delivery, the fundus is about the size of a grapefruit and can be felt at or above the umbilicus (the navel). It gradually descends about one fingerbreadth per day until it reaches the level of the symphysis pubis (the joint where the two pubic bones meet) by about 10 days postpartum. By 14 days postpartum, the fundus should be below the symphysis and not palpable.
Choice d) Moderate bright red lochial flow is incorrect because this is not a sign of normal involution, but rather a sign of excessive or prolonged bleeding after delivery. Lochia is the vaginal discharge that consists of blood, mucus, and tissue from the lining of the uterus. It changes in color and amount over time, from red to pink to brown to yellow to white. The normal lochia flow should be scant to moderate in amount, dark red to brown in color, and last for about 4 to 6 weeks postpartum. A moderate bright red lochial flow on day 14 postpartum may indicate that the uterus is not contracting well or that there is an infection or retained placental tissue in the uterus.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), also known as aspirin, is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a preventive measure. ASA may reduce the risk of preeclampsia in some high-risk women by inhibiting platelet aggregation and improving blood flow to the placenta. However, ASA is not recommended for all pregnant women, as it may have adverse effects on the mother and the fetus, such as bleeding, premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, or fetal growth restriction.
Choice B: This is the correct answer because delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia, as it eliminates the source of the placental factors that cause the condition. Preeclampsia is a multisystem disorder characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is caused by abnormal placentation and endothelial dysfunction that lead to vasoconstriction, inflammation, and coagulation.
Delivery of the fetus and the placenta resolves these abnormalities and restores normal maternal physiology.
Choice C: This is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a cure for preeclampsia, but a symptomatic management. Antihypertensive medications may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of maternal complications, such as stroke, seizure, or organ damage. However, antihypertensive medications do not address the underlying cause of preeclampsia and do not improve fetal outcomes. Moreover, some antihypertensive medications are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects.
Choice D: This is incorrect because magnesium sulfate is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a prophylaxis for eclampsia. Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves seizures and coma. Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that prevents or treats eclamptic seizures by stabilizing neuronal membranes and reducing cerebral edema. However, magnesium sulfate does not lower blood pressure or improve renal function in preeclamptic women. It also has side effects such as nausea, flushing, headache, or respiratory depression.
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