After several months of persistent heartburn, a 57-year-old female client has been diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following treatment regimens is likely to best address the woman’s health problem?
Weight loss and administration of calcium channel blocking medications
Surgical correction of the incompetent pylorus
Antacids; avoiding positions that exacerbate reflux; a soft textured diet
Proton pump inhibitors; avoiding large meals; remaining upright after meals
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Weight loss helps GERD by reducing abdominal pressure, but calcium channel blockers can worsen reflux by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter. This makes the regimen counterproductive, as it does not effectively reduce acid exposure, rendering it an incorrect treatment choice.
Choice B reason: Surgical correction of the pylorus addresses gastric outlet issues, not GERD, which involves lower esophageal sphincter dysfunction. Procedures like fundoplication target GERD, but surgery is reserved for severe cases, making this an incorrect primary treatment regimen.
Choice C reason: Antacids provide temporary relief but do not suppress acid production long-term. Avoiding exacerbating positions and soft diets help, but they are less effective without stronger acid suppression, making this regimen less comprehensive than proton pump inhibitors for managing GERD.
Choice D reason: Proton pump inhibitors reduce acid production, healing esophageal damage in GERD. Avoiding large meals and staying upright minimize reflux episodes by reducing stomach pressure and promoting gastric emptying. This comprehensive approach effectively manages symptoms, making it the best treatment regimen.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hemorrhagic stroke often causes headache and severe neurological deficits, not just sudden weakness. Ischemic stroke, from a clot, fits Isky’s sudden focal symptoms, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Ischemic stroke, caused by arterial occlusion, presents with sudden weakness, numbness, and speech issues, as seen in Isky. Her risk factors (hypertension, diabetes, smoking) support this, making it correct.
Choice C reason: Transient ischemic attack resolves quickly, unlike Isky’s ongoing symptoms. Ischemic stroke causes persistent deficits, matching her presentation, so this is incorrect for the stroke type.
Choice D reason: Subarachnoid hemorrhage typically involves severe headache, not focal weakness. Ischemic stroke aligns with Isky’s sudden, unilateral symptoms, so this is incorrect for her condition.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: SIADH causes water retention, not loss, leading to sodium dilution from excess fluid. Sodium dilution and water retention are the effects, so sodium dilution with water loss is incorrect for SIADH’s solute impact.
Choice B reason: SIADH does not cause sodium retention or water loss; it retains water, diluting sodium. The correct effect is sodium dilution with water retention, so this is incorrect for the syndrome’s solute effects.
Choice C reason: SIADH results in water retention due to excess ADH, diluting serum sodium levels (hyponatremia). This sodium dilution and water retention are hallmark effects, making this the correct choice for the solute impact.
Choice D reason: SIADH causes water retention, not sodium retention, leading to diluted sodium. Sodium and water retention would increase sodium levels, which doesn’t occur, so this is incorrect for SIADH effects.
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