After several months of persistent heartburn, a 57-year-old female client has been diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following treatment regimens is likely to best address the woman’s health problem?

Weight loss and administration of calcium channel blocking medications

Surgical correction of the incompetent pylorus

Antacids; avoiding positions that exacerbate reflux; a soft textured diet

Proton pump inhibitors; avoiding large meals; remaining upright after meals

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Weight loss helps GERD by reducing abdominal pressure, but calcium channel blockers can worsen reflux by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter. This makes the regimen counterproductive, as it does not effectively reduce acid exposure, rendering it an incorrect treatment choice.

Choice B reason: Surgical correction of the pylorus addresses gastric outlet issues, not GERD, which involves lower esophageal sphincter dysfunction. Procedures like fundoplication target GERD, but surgery is reserved for severe cases, making this an incorrect primary treatment regimen.

Choice C reason: Antacids provide temporary relief but do not suppress acid production long-term. Avoiding exacerbating positions and soft diets help, but they are less effective without stronger acid suppression, making this regimen less comprehensive than proton pump inhibitors for managing GERD.

Choice D reason: Proton pump inhibitors reduce acid production, healing esophageal damage in GERD. Avoiding large meals and staying upright minimize reflux episodes by reducing stomach pressure and promoting gastric emptying. This comprehensive approach effectively manages symptoms, making it the best treatment regimen.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Necrotic bladder implies tissue death, not a nerve-related obstruction. Neurogenic bladder, caused by nerve supply interruption, leads to functional obstruction, making this incorrect for the described condition.

Choice B reason: Neurogenic bladder results from nerve supply interruption, causing dysfunctional bladder control and obstruction. This matches the description of a functional urinary tract issue, making it the correct term.

Choice C reason: Retrograde bladder is not a medical term; retrograde refers to urine backflow. Neurogenic bladder accurately describes nerve-related obstruction, so this is incorrect for the condition.

Choice D reason: Obstructed bladder is vague and not specific to nerve issues. Neurogenic bladder directly addresses nerve supply disruption causing obstruction, making this incorrect for the term.

A. Nerve damage from the prosthetic B. Heart attack referred pain C. Muscle strain in the remaining part of the arm D. Phantom limb pain

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Nerve damage from the prosthetic may cause local discomfort, but pain in the entire absent arm suggests phantom limb pain. This is less likely than neural misfiring, so it’s incorrect.

Choice B reason: Heart attack referred pain typically affects the left arm but is unlikely in a prosthetic limb. Phantom limb pain explains pain in the absent arm, so this is incorrect.

Choice C reason: Muscle strain affects existing muscles, not a prosthetic arm. Phantom limb pain, from neural signals in the brain, explains pain in the missing limb, so this is incorrect.

Choice D reason: Phantom limb pain occurs when the brain perceives pain in an amputated limb, common in prosthetic users. This matches Mr. Jones’s pain in his prosthetic arm, making it correct.

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After several months of persistent heartburn, a 57-year-old female client has been diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following treatment regimens is likely to best address the woman’s health problem?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What medical term is used to identify a functional urinary tract obstruction caused by an interruption of the nerve supply to the bladder?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Mr. Jones presents to the clinic with extreme pain in his left arm. During your assessment, you notice that he has a prosthetic left arm (from the shoulder down). What explanation can you provide for Mr. Jones reporting extreme pain in his left arm?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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