Thrombocytopenia:
Is a platelet count greater than 100,000/mm³
Is a platelet count less than 150,000/mm³
Is the cause of increased clotting
Is due to increased platelet production
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Thrombocytopenia is a low platelet count (<150,000/mm³), not >100,000/mm³, which may still be normal or low-normal. A count <150,000 defines the condition, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Thrombocytopenia is defined as a platelet count less than 150,000/mm³, increasing bleeding risk. This accurately describes the condition, making it the correct choice for the definition.
Choice C reason: Thrombocytopenia causes bleeding, not increased clotting, due to low platelets. Clotting issues arise from high platelets, so this is incorrect for thrombocytopenia’s effects.
Choice D reason: Thrombocytopenia results from decreased platelet production or increased destruction, not increased production. Low platelet count defines it, so this is incorrect for the cause.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Increased glucose use doesn’t occur in DKA; insulin deficiency reduces glucose uptake. Fluid shifts are due to osmotic diuresis, not intravascular to intracellular movement, so this is incorrect for DKA’s mechanism.
Choice B reason: DKA involves metabolic, not respiratory, acidosis from ketones. Protein catabolism occurs, but fatty acid use and ketogenesis are primary, leading to acidosis and diuresis, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Increased glucose and fatty acids contribute, but the mechanism is decreased glucose use causing ketogenesis. This option omits ketogenesis, a key DKA feature, so it’s less precise and incorrect.
Choice D reason: Insulin deficiency in DKA reduces glucose use, leading to fatty acid breakdown, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis (pH 7.2), and osmotic diuresis (electrolyte loss). This fully explains the lab values, making it correct.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A fracture is a break in the bone, as seen in the patient, but osteosarcoma is the underlying tumor causing the pathological fracture. Defining osteosarcoma as a fracture ignores its neoplastic nature, making this incorrect.
Choice B reason: A bone infection, or osteomyelitis, involves bacterial or fungal invasion, causing pain and inflammation. Osteosarcoma is a primary bone cancer, not an infection, with distinct histopathological features, making this an incorrect definition.
Choice C reason: Osteosarcoma is a malignant bone tumor, typically arising in long bones like the humerus, often causing pain, swelling, and pathological fractures. This matches the patient’s imaging findings and clinical presentation, making this the correct definition.
Choice D reason: A benign bone tumor, like an osteoma, does not metastasize or cause aggressive destruction. Osteosarcoma’s malignant nature leads to local invasion and potential metastasis, as implied by the fracture, making this incorrect.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
