After teaching a woman who has had an evacuation for gestational trophoblastic disease (hydatidiform mole or molar pregnancy) about her condition, which statement indicates that the nurse's teaching was successful?

"I won't use my birth control pills for at least a year or two."

"I will be sure to avoid getting pregnant for at least 1 year."

"My blood pressure will continue to be increased for about 6 more months."

"My intake of iron will have to be closely monitored for 6 months."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. "I won't use my birth control pills for at least a year or two." - This statement does not accurately reflect the teaching provided. After treatment for gestational trophoblastic disease, it is important for the woman to avoid pregnancy for a specified period of time to allow for monitoring and to reduce the risk of complications. However, the use of birth control pills is typically recommended to prevent pregnancy during this period.

B. "I will be sure to avoid getting pregnant for at least 1 year." - This statement demonstrates understanding of the teaching. After treatment for gestational trophoblastic disease, healthcare providers typically recommend avoiding pregnancy for at least one year. This allows for monitoring of hCG levels to ensure they return to normal and to reduce the risk of recurrence.

C. "My blood pressure will continue to be increased for about 6 more months." - This statement is not related to the teaching about gestational trophoblastic disease. Blood pressure may be affected during pregnancy, but it is not a specific concern related to treatment for gestational trophoblastic disease.

D. "My intake of iron will have to be closely monitored for 6 months." - This statement is not directly related to the teaching about gestational trophoblastic disease. While monitoring of iron levels may be important for overall health, it is not a specific recommendation related to treatment for this condition.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Candidiasis:

Candidiasis is caused by an overgrowth of the fungus Candida albicans in the vagina. It typically presents with symptoms such as thick, white vaginal discharge (resembling cottage cheese), itching, and discomfort during sexual intercourse (dyspareunia). This option is the most likely diagnosis based on the client's symptoms.

B. Genital herpes simplex:

Genital herpes simplex is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). It presents with symptoms such as painful, fluid-filled blisters or sores in the genital area. While genital herpes can cause vaginal discharge, the discharge is typically clear or cloudy, not thick and white as described in the scenario.

C. Trichomoniasis:

Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. It commonly presents with symptoms such as a frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge, itching, and discomfort during urination or sexual intercourse. The discharge is typically not described as thick and white.

D. Bacterial vaginosis:

Bacterial vaginosis results from an imbalance of bacteria in the vagina, with a decrease in beneficial bacteria and an overgrowth of harmful bacteria. It presents with symptoms such as a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor. While bacterial vaginosis can cause vaginal discomfort, the discharge is not typically described as thick and white.

A. stress incontinence with feeling of low abdominal pressure B. menstrual irregularities and hirsutism on the chin C. heavy leukorrhea with vulvar pruritus D. sporadic vaginal bleeding accompanied by chronic pelvic pain

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Stress incontinence with feeling of low abdominal pressure.

Cystocele and rectocele repairs are often performed to address pelvic organ prolapse, which can lead to symptoms such as stress incontinence. Stress incontinence is characterized by the leakage of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or lifting. The feeling of low abdominal pressure is consistent with the symptoms experienced by women with cystocele and rectocele, as the prolapse of pelvic organs can cause sensations of pressure or fullness in the lower abdomen.

B. Menstrual irregularities and hirsutism on the chin:

These symptoms are more indicative of hormonal imbalances, such as polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which is characterized by irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism (excessive hair growth), and other symptoms related to androgen excess. These symptoms are not typically associated with cystocele and rectocele repairs or the number of children a woman has.

C. Heavy leukorrhea with vulvar pruritus:

Leukorrhea refers to vaginal discharge, and vulvar pruritus refers to itching of the external genitalia. These symptoms are more suggestive of vaginal infections or other gynecological conditions unrelated to cystocele and rectocele repairs or the number of children a woman has.

D. Sporadic vaginal bleeding accompanied by chronic pelvic pain:

Sporadic vaginal bleeding and chronic pelvic pain may be indicative of various gynecological conditions, such as uterine fibroids, endometriosis, or cervical dysplasia. However, they are not typically associated with cystocele and rectocele repairs or the number of children a woman has.

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After teaching a woman who has had an evacuation for gestational trophoblastic disease (hydatidiform mole or molar pregnancy) about her condition, which statement indicates that the nurse's teaching was successful?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Assessment of a female client reveals a thick, white vaginal discharge. The client also reports intense itching and dyspareunia. Based on these findings, the nurse would suspect that the client has:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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