All are recommended treatment for somatic system disorder except
Psychotherapy
Antipsychotics
Anti-anxiety medications
Antidepressants
The Correct Answer is B
A. Psychotherapy. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the first-line treatment for somatic symptom disorder (SSD). It helps patients recognize and modify maladaptive thoughts about their physical symptoms, reducing distress and improving coping mechanisms.
B. Antipsychotics. Antipsychotic medications are not typically recommended for SSD unless there is a comorbid psychotic disorder or severe delusional thinking. SSD is primarily driven by excessive health-related anxiety and preoccupation with physical symptoms, not psychosis.
C. Anti-anxiety medications. Short-term use of anxiolytics (e.g., benzodiazepines) may help with acute anxiety symptoms, but they are not the preferred treatment due to the risk of dependence. SSRIs and psychotherapy are more effective long-term for managing anxiety in SSD.
D. Antidepressants. SSRIs and SNRIs are commonly used to treat SSD, especially when there is underlying depression or anxiety. These medications help reduce excessive preoccupation with physical symptoms and improve overall emotional well-being.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic, which has a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) but a lower risk of metabolic syndrome compared to second-generation antipsychotics.
B. Aripiprazole (Abilify) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic with a lower risk of metabolic side effects. It has a partial dopamine agonist mechanism, which makes it less likely to cause weight gain, dyslipidemia, or glucose intolerance.
C. Clozapine (Clozaril) has the highest risk of metabolic syndrome among antipsychotics. It is associated with significant weight gain, hyperglycemia, dyslipidemia, and an increased risk of diabetes. Regular metabolic monitoring (weight, blood glucose, lipids) is essential for patients taking clozapine.
D. Lurasidone (Latuda) is a second-generation antipsychotic with a lower metabolic risk compared to other atypical antipsychotics. It is generally considered weight-neutral and has minimal effects on glucose and lipid metabolism.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Mesolimbic pathway is associated with reward, motivation, and emotions and is hyperactive in schizophrenia, leading to positive symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Antipsychotic medications work by blocking dopamine (D2) receptors in this pathway, reducing psychotic symptoms.
B. Nigrostriatal pathway controls motor function and coordination. Dopamine blockade in this pathway leads to extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as tremors, rigidity, and tardive dyskinesia, which are common side effects of first-generation antipsychotics (typical antipsychotics).
C. Tuberoinfundibular pathway regulates prolactin secretion. Dopamine inhibits prolactin release, so blocking D2 receptors with antipsychotics leads to increased prolactin levels, causing gynecomastia, galactorrhea, and menstrual irregularities.
D. Mesocortical pathway is responsible for cognition, motivation, and emotional regulation. In schizophrenia, this pathway is hypoactive, contributing to negative symptoms such as apathy, social withdrawal, and cognitive impairment.
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