Per DSM-5, which of the following best describes brief psychotic disorder?
Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than a month.
Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than two months.
Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than one year.
Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than six months.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than a month. According to the DSM-5, brief psychotic disorder is characterized by a sudden onset of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or disorganized behavior that lasts at least one day but less than one month, with eventual full recovery.
B. Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than two months. The DSM-5 criteria do not define brief psychotic disorder with a two-month duration. If symptoms persist beyond one month, another diagnosis, such as schizophreniform disorder, may be considered.
C. Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than one year. Psychotic symptoms lasting up to one year are more indicative of schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder, not brief psychotic disorder.
D. Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than six months. Psychotic symptoms lasting longer than one month but less than six months are consistent with schizophreniform disorder, rather than brief psychotic disorder.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Meaningless rhythm of words. This describes word salad, a disorganized speech pattern where words are strung together without logical connection, often seen in schizophrenia or severe psychosis.
B. Roundabout. This refers to circumstantial speech, where an individual provides excessive, unnecessary details before eventually arriving at the main point. This is commonly seen in mania, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), or cognitive impairment.
C. Made-up words. Neologisms are newly invented words or phrases that have no meaning to others but may carry personal significance to the individual. This is frequently observed in schizophrenia, psychotic disorders, or neurological conditions like aphasia.
D. Repeating of another's words. This describes echolalia, a speech disturbance where a person repeats words or phrases spoken by others, often seen in autism spectrum disorder (ASD), schizophrenia, or catatonia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic, which has a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) but a lower risk of metabolic syndrome compared to second-generation antipsychotics.
B. Aripiprazole (Abilify) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic with a lower risk of metabolic side effects. It has a partial dopamine agonist mechanism, which makes it less likely to cause weight gain, dyslipidemia, or glucose intolerance.
C. Clozapine (Clozaril) has the highest risk of metabolic syndrome among antipsychotics. It is associated with significant weight gain, hyperglycemia, dyslipidemia, and an increased risk of diabetes. Regular metabolic monitoring (weight, blood glucose, lipids) is essential for patients taking clozapine.
D. Lurasidone (Latuda) is a second-generation antipsychotic with a lower metabolic risk compared to other atypical antipsychotics. It is generally considered weight-neutral and has minimal effects on glucose and lipid metabolism.
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