Per DSM-5, which of the following best describes brief psychotic disorder?
Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than a month.
Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than two months.
Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than one year.
Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than six months.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than a month. According to the DSM-5, brief psychotic disorder is characterized by a sudden onset of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or disorganized behavior that lasts at least one day but less than one month, with eventual full recovery.
B. Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than two months. The DSM-5 criteria do not define brief psychotic disorder with a two-month duration. If symptoms persist beyond one month, another diagnosis, such as schizophreniform disorder, may be considered.
C. Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than one year. Psychotic symptoms lasting up to one year are more indicative of schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder, not brief psychotic disorder.
D. Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than six months. Psychotic symptoms lasting longer than one month but less than six months are consistent with schizophreniform disorder, rather than brief psychotic disorder.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Adderall (amphetamine/dextroamphetamine) is a stimulant that increases dopamine and norepinephrine levels in the brain, improving focus and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. It is a Schedule II controlled substance due to its potential for abuse and dependence.
B. Strattera (atomoxetine) is a non-stimulant medication used for ADHD. It is a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (NRI) that helps with attention and impulse control but has a lower risk of abuse compared to stimulant medications. Unlike stimulants, it may take several weeks to show full effects.
C. Vyvanse (lisdexamfetamine) is a stimulant that is a prodrug of dextroamphetamine, meaning it must be metabolized in the body before becoming active. This mechanism provides a longer, smoother effect with a lower potential for abuse compared to immediate-release stimulants.
D. Ritalin (methylphenidate) is a stimulant that increases dopamine and norepinephrine activity in the brain, improving focus and impulse control. It is commonly used in both children and adults with ADHD and has short-acting, intermediate, and long-acting formulations.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Mesolimbic pathway is associated with reward, motivation, and emotions and is hyperactive in schizophrenia, leading to positive symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Antipsychotic medications work by blocking dopamine (D2) receptors in this pathway, reducing psychotic symptoms.
B. Nigrostriatal pathway controls motor function and coordination. Dopamine blockade in this pathway leads to extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as tremors, rigidity, and tardive dyskinesia, which are common side effects of first-generation antipsychotics (typical antipsychotics).
C. Tuberoinfundibular pathway regulates prolactin secretion. Dopamine inhibits prolactin release, so blocking D2 receptors with antipsychotics leads to increased prolactin levels, causing gynecomastia, galactorrhea, and menstrual irregularities.
D. Mesocortical pathway is responsible for cognition, motivation, and emotional regulation. In schizophrenia, this pathway is hypoactive, contributing to negative symptoms such as apathy, social withdrawal, and cognitive impairment.
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