Per DSM-5, at least one of the following has to be present to diagnose schizophrenia except
Hallucinations
Delusions
Disorganized speech
Negative symptoms
The Correct Answer is D
A. Hallucinations are a core positive symptom of schizophrenia and involve false sensory perceptions without an external stimulus (e.g., hearing voices, seeing things that are not there). According to the DSM-5, hallucinations are one of the three essential symptoms that must be present for a diagnosis.
B. Delusions are fixed, false beliefs that persist despite evidence to the contrary (e.g., persecutory delusions, grandiose delusions). Delusions are a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia and are required as a diagnostic criterion if present.
C. Disorganized speech reflects disorganized thinking, a key symptom of schizophrenia. It includes incoherence, tangentiality, and word salad, demonstrating the cognitive dysfunction associated with the disorder. If disorganized speech is present, it fulfils one of the primary diagnostic criteria.
D. Negative symptoms such as avolition, anhedonia, alogia, and flat affect, are common in schizophrenia but are not required for diagnosis. According to the DSM-5, at least one of the following three symptoms hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech must be present to meet the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic known for its strong dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) blockade. It is primarily used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but has a high risk of agranulocytosis, metabolic syndrome, and sedation, requiring regular blood monitoring.
B. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that strongly blocks dopamine (D2) receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and akathisia. It is commonly used for acute psychosis and agitation.
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin is a first-generation antipsychotic that also strongly antagonizes D2 receptors, making it effective for chronic schizophrenia but highly associated with EPS. It is available in long-acting injectable (LAI) form for maintenance therapy.
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation, low-potency antipsychotic with strong sedative, anticholinergic, and hypotensive effects. While it has a lower risk of EPS compared to high-potency FGAs like haloperidol, it causes more sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain due to histamine and muscarinic receptor blockade.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Stabilization phase. The stabilization phase occurs after the acute phase, when psychotic symptoms begin to improve with treatment. During this phase, the focus is on reducing symptom severity, medication adjustment, and preventing relapse.
B. Maintenance phase. The maintenance phase follows stabilization and involves long-term management to prevent relapse. During this phase, symptoms are either in remission or significantly reduced, and the goal is to ensure medication adherence, therapy, and social reintegration.
C. Prodromal phase. The prodromal phase precedes the acute phase and is marked by early warning signs such as social withdrawal, decreased motivation, mild paranoia, and subtle cognitive changes. It may last weeks to years before full-blown psychotic symptoms appear.
D. Acute phase. The acute phase is the period of full-blown psychotic symptoms, including hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and impaired functioning. This is the most severe phase, often requiring hospitalization and intensive treatment to stabilize the patient.
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