Per DSM-5, at least one of the following has to be present to diagnose schizophrenia except
Hallucinations
Delusions
Disorganized speech
Negative symptoms
The Correct Answer is D
A. Hallucinations are a core positive symptom of schizophrenia and involve false sensory perceptions without an external stimulus (e.g., hearing voices, seeing things that are not there). According to the DSM-5, hallucinations are one of the three essential symptoms that must be present for a diagnosis.
B. Delusions are fixed, false beliefs that persist despite evidence to the contrary (e.g., persecutory delusions, grandiose delusions). Delusions are a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia and are required as a diagnostic criterion if present.
C. Disorganized speech reflects disorganized thinking, a key symptom of schizophrenia. It includes incoherence, tangentiality, and word salad, demonstrating the cognitive dysfunction associated with the disorder. If disorganized speech is present, it fulfils one of the primary diagnostic criteria.
D. Negative symptoms such as avolition, anhedonia, alogia, and flat affect, are common in schizophrenia but are not required for diagnosis. According to the DSM-5, at least one of the following three symptoms hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech must be present to meet the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic known for its strong dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) blockade. It is primarily used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but has a high risk of agranulocytosis, metabolic syndrome, and sedation, requiring regular blood monitoring.
B. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that strongly blocks dopamine (D2) receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and akathisia. It is commonly used for acute psychosis and agitation.
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin is a first-generation antipsychotic that also strongly antagonizes D2 receptors, making it effective for chronic schizophrenia but highly associated with EPS. It is available in long-acting injectable (LAI) form for maintenance therapy.
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation, low-potency antipsychotic with strong sedative, anticholinergic, and hypotensive effects. While it has a lower risk of EPS compared to high-potency FGAs like haloperidol, it causes more sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain due to histamine and muscarinic receptor blockade.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic, which has a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) but a lower risk of metabolic syndrome compared to second-generation antipsychotics.
B. Aripiprazole (Abilify) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic with a lower risk of metabolic side effects. It has a partial dopamine agonist mechanism, which makes it less likely to cause weight gain, dyslipidemia, or glucose intolerance.
C. Clozapine (Clozaril) has the highest risk of metabolic syndrome among antipsychotics. It is associated with significant weight gain, hyperglycemia, dyslipidemia, and an increased risk of diabetes. Regular metabolic monitoring (weight, blood glucose, lipids) is essential for patients taking clozapine.
D. Lurasidone (Latuda) is a second-generation antipsychotic with a lower metabolic risk compared to other atypical antipsychotics. It is generally considered weight-neutral and has minimal effects on glucose and lipid metabolism.
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