All of the following describes obsessive-compulsive personality disorder except
Micromanages others
Perfectionist
Workaholic
Wants to be alone
The Correct Answer is D
A. Micromanages others. Individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) exhibit excessive control and perfectionism, often micromanaging tasks and people to ensure everything is done "correctly." They struggle with delegating responsibilities because they believe others will not meet their high standards.
B. Perfectionist. Rigid perfectionism is a core feature of OCPD. Individuals set unrealistically high expectations for themselves and others, leading to chronic dissatisfaction, procrastination, and inefficiency because they fear making mistakes.
C. Workaholic. Those with OCPD are often preoccupied with work and productivity, sometimes neglecting personal relationships and leisure activities. They may prioritize tasks over social interactions, believing that relaxation is a sign of laziness.
D. Wants to be alone. Unlike schizoid personality disorder, individuals with OCPD do not prefer isolation. They often engage with others in structured environments but struggle in relationships due to their rigid expectations, stubbornness, and excessive control over details rather than a genuine desire to be alone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) does not require food for absorption, but it has a high risk of sedation, weight gain, and metabolic side effects. It also requires regular blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocytosis.
B. Aripiprazole (Abilify) can be taken with or without food, as food does not significantly affect its absorption. It is a partial dopamine agonist, associated with a lower risk of weight gain and metabolic issues compared to other atypical antipsychotics.
C. Lurasidone (Latuda) must be taken with at least 350 calories of food to ensure proper absorption. Taking it on an empty stomach reduces its bioavailability, making it less effective. It is considered a weight-neutral antipsychotic and has a lower risk of metabolic side effects.
D. Haloperidol (Haldol) does not require food for absorption. It is a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) with a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) but minimal metabolic effects.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Dopamine. Tourette’s syndrome is primarily associated with dopamine dysregulation, particularly increased dopamine activity in the basal ganglia. This overactivity leads to excessive, involuntary motor and vocal tics. Dopamine-blocking medications, such as antipsychotics (e.g., haloperidol, risperidone), can help reduce tic severity.
B. Serotonin. While serotonin plays a role in mood regulation and impulse control, it is not the primary neurotransmitter involved in Tourette’s. However, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be used to treat co-occurring obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and anxiety symptoms in Tourette’s patients.
C. Glutamate is the brain’s primary excitatory neurotransmitter, involved in learning and memory. While some research suggests glutamate imbalances may contribute to tic severity and compulsive behaviors, dopamine remains the key neurotransmitter in Tourette’s pathology.
D. GABA is the brain’s primary inhibitory neurotransmitter, responsible for reducing neural excitability. Though impaired GABAergic inhibition may contribute to tic generation, the main abnormality in Tourette’s involves dopamine overactivity in the basal ganglia and cortico-striatal-thalamo-cortical circuits.
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