All of the following are first generation antipsychotics except,
clozapine (Clozaril)
haloperidol (Haldol)
fluphenazine (Prolixin)
chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic known for its strong dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) blockade. It is primarily used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but has a high risk of agranulocytosis, metabolic syndrome, and sedation, requiring regular blood monitoring.
B. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that strongly blocks dopamine (D2) receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and akathisia. It is commonly used for acute psychosis and agitation.
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin is a first-generation antipsychotic that also strongly antagonizes D2 receptors, making it effective for chronic schizophrenia but highly associated with EPS. It is available in long-acting injectable (LAI) form for maintenance therapy.
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation, low-potency antipsychotic with strong sedative, anticholinergic, and hypotensive effects. While it has a lower risk of EPS compared to high-potency FGAs like haloperidol, it causes more sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain due to histamine and muscarinic receptor blockade.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Severe temper outbursts. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) is characterized by frequent, severe temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation. These outbursts can be verbal or physical and occur at least three times per week, persisting for one year or more.
B. Struggle to regulate emotions. Individuals with DMDD have difficulty managing emotions, particularly anger and frustration. This emotional dysregulation leads to persistent mood instability, which interferes with daily functioning at home, school, and in social settings.
C. Hyperactivity. Hyperactivity is not a core symptom of DMDD but is more commonly associated with Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). While some children with DMDD may also have ADHD, DMDD primarily involves severe mood disturbances rather than impulsivity or excessive movement.
D. Chronic irritability. Persistent irritability is a hallmark of DMDD, with children and adolescents experiencing near-constant irritability between temper outbursts. Unlike episodic mood disorders like bipolar disorder, DMDD symptoms are chronic and ongoing without distinct mood episodes.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Only engages in solitary activities. Individuals with schizoid personality disorder (SPD) prefer solitary activities and show little interest in social interactions. They are emotionally detached and lack the desire for close relationships, including friendships and romantic partnerships.
B. Dislikes criticism. While people with SPD may be indifferent to praise or criticism, they are not particularly sensitive to it. Unlike avoidant personality disorder, where individuals avoid social interactions due to fear of rejection, those with SPD are emotionally detached and often indifferent to others' opinions.
C. Always wants to be center of attention. This describes histrionic personality disorder (HPD), not schizoid personality disorder. Individuals with HPD seek constant attention, approval, and validation, whereas those with SPD prefer to remain isolated and avoid social engagement.
D. Affective flattening. Affective flattening (emotional coldness or limited emotional expression) is a key feature of SPD. Individuals display minimal facial expressions, monotone speech, and reduced nonverbal communication, contributing to their perceived social aloofness.
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