All of the following are first generation antipsychotics except,
clozapine (Clozaril)
haloperidol (Haldol)
fluphenazine (Prolixin)
chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic known for its strong dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) blockade. It is primarily used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but has a high risk of agranulocytosis, metabolic syndrome, and sedation, requiring regular blood monitoring.
B. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that strongly blocks dopamine (D2) receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and akathisia. It is commonly used for acute psychosis and agitation.
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin is a first-generation antipsychotic that also strongly antagonizes D2 receptors, making it effective for chronic schizophrenia but highly associated with EPS. It is available in long-acting injectable (LAI) form for maintenance therapy.
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation, low-potency antipsychotic with strong sedative, anticholinergic, and hypotensive effects. While it has a lower risk of EPS compared to high-potency FGAs like haloperidol, it causes more sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain due to histamine and muscarinic receptor blockade.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) does not require food for absorption, but it has a high risk of sedation, weight gain, and metabolic side effects. It also requires regular blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocytosis.
B. Aripiprazole (Abilify) can be taken with or without food, as food does not significantly affect its absorption. It is a partial dopamine agonist, associated with a lower risk of weight gain and metabolic issues compared to other atypical antipsychotics.
C. Lurasidone (Latuda) must be taken with at least 350 calories of food to ensure proper absorption. Taking it on an empty stomach reduces its bioavailability, making it less effective. It is considered a weight-neutral antipsychotic and has a lower risk of metabolic side effects.
D. Haloperidol (Haldol) does not require food for absorption. It is a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) with a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) but minimal metabolic effects.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant and neuropathic pain medication that has no role in treating enuresis. It works by modulating calcium channels and is primarily used for seizures, neuropathic pain, and restless leg syndrome.
B. Laxatives. While constipation can contribute to enuresis by exerting pressure on the bladder, laxatives do not directly treat bedwetting. Instead, addressing constipation may help reduce nocturnal enuresis in some cases.
C. Desmopressin (DDAVP) is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for enuresis. It is a synthetic analog of antidiuretic hormone (ADH, vasopressin) that reduces night-time urine production, making it effective for nocturnal enuresis (bedwetting) in children.
D. SSRIs. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are used for depression, anxiety, and OCD but have no primary role in enuresis treatment. In some cases, they may actually cause urinary retention or incontinence as a side effect rather than improving enuresis.
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