All of the following are first generation antipsychotics except,
clozapine (Clozaril)
haloperidol (Haldol)
fluphenazine (Prolixin)
chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic known for its strong dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) blockade. It is primarily used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but has a high risk of agranulocytosis, metabolic syndrome, and sedation, requiring regular blood monitoring.
B. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that strongly blocks dopamine (D2) receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and akathisia. It is commonly used for acute psychosis and agitation.
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin is a first-generation antipsychotic that also strongly antagonizes D2 receptors, making it effective for chronic schizophrenia but highly associated with EPS. It is available in long-acting injectable (LAI) form for maintenance therapy.
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation, low-potency antipsychotic with strong sedative, anticholinergic, and hypotensive effects. While it has a lower risk of EPS compared to high-potency FGAs like haloperidol, it causes more sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain due to histamine and muscarinic receptor blockade.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic known for its strong dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) blockade. It is primarily used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but has a high risk of agranulocytosis, metabolic syndrome, and sedation, requiring regular blood monitoring.
B. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that strongly blocks dopamine (D2) receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and akathisia. It is commonly used for acute psychosis and agitation.
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin is a first-generation antipsychotic that also strongly antagonizes D2 receptors, making it effective for chronic schizophrenia but highly associated with EPS. It is available in long-acting injectable (LAI) form for maintenance therapy.
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation, low-potency antipsychotic with strong sedative, anticholinergic, and hypotensive effects. While it has a lower risk of EPS compared to high-potency FGAs like haloperidol, it causes more sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain due to histamine and muscarinic receptor blockade.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Meaningless rhythm of words. This describes word salad, a disorganized speech pattern where words are strung together without logical connection, often seen in schizophrenia or severe psychosis.
B. Roundabout. This refers to circumstantial speech, where an individual provides excessive, unnecessary details before eventually arriving at the main point. This is commonly seen in mania, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), or cognitive impairment.
C. Made-up words. Neologisms are newly invented words or phrases that have no meaning to others but may carry personal significance to the individual. This is frequently observed in schizophrenia, psychotic disorders, or neurological conditions like aphasia.
D. Repeating of another's words. This describes echolalia, a speech disturbance where a person repeats words or phrases spoken by others, often seen in autism spectrum disorder (ASD), schizophrenia, or catatonia.
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