An nurse explains to new parents that their infant has developed Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn (TTN). The nurse understands that risk factors for TTN include which of the following?
Select one:
Preterm infant.
Female infant.
GBS status of mother.
Cesarean section.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Preterm infant. This is an incorrect answer that confuses TTN with another respiratory condition called respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). RDS is a serious condition where the newborn's lungs are immature and lack sufficient surfactant, which is a substance that reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. RDS can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and organ failure. It is more common in preterm infants, especially those born before 37 weeks' gestation.
Choice B Reason: Female infant. This is an incorrect answer that has no evidence or rationale to support it. TTN does not have a gender preference or difference in incidence or severity.
Choice C Reason: GBS status of mother. This is an incorrect answer that relates to another respiratory complication called early-onset neonatal sepsis (EONS). EONS is a bacterial infection that occurs within 72 hours after birth, which can affect multiple organs and systems in the newborn. EONS can be caused by group B streptococcus (GBS), which is a common bacterium that colonizes in some women's vagina or rectum. GBS can be transmited to the newborn during delivery and cause pneumonia, meningitis, or septic shock.
Choice D Reason: Cesarean section. This is because cesarean section is a risk factor for TTN, which is a mild respiratory problem that results from delayed clearance of fetal lung fluid after birth. TTN causes rapid breathing, nasal flaring, grunting, and mild cyanosis. It usually resolves within 24 to 48 hours after birth. Cesarean section can increase the risk of TTN because it bypasses the normal process of labor, which helps squeeze out some of the fluid from the fetal lungs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. This is an incorrect answer that describes an unlikely condition for this client. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease where abnormal placental tissue develops instead of a normal fetus. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting), preeclampsia, and hyperthyroidism. A hydatidiform mole usually causes a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age, not smaller.
Choice B Reason: Assess for congenital anomalies. This is an incorrect answer that implies that the client has not had a previous ultrasound to screen for fetal anomalies. Congenital anomalies are structural or functional defects that are present at birth, such as cleft lip, spina bifida, or Down syndrome. Ultrasound can detect some congenital anomalies by visualizing the fetal anatomy and morphology. However, ultrasound screening for fetal anomalies is usually done between 18 and 22 weeks of gestation, not at 32 weeks.
Choice C Reason: Determine fetal presentation. This is an incorrect answer that suggests that the client has an uncertain fetal presentation. Fetal presentation is the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix, such as vertex (head), breech (butocks or feet), or transverse (shoulder). Fetal presentation can affect the mode and outcome of delivery. Ultrasound can determine fetal presentation by locating the fetal head and spine. However, fetal presentation can also be assessed by abdominal palpation or vaginal examination, which are simpler and less invasive methods.
Choice D Reason: Monitor fetal growth. This is because fundal height measurement is a method of estimating fetal size and gestational age by measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) in centimeters. A fundal height measurement that is significantly smaller or larger than expected for gestational age may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or macrosomia, respectively. IUGR means that the fetal growth is slower than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of fetal distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and stillbirth. Macrosomia means that the fetal weight is higher than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of birth injuries, shoulder dystocia, cesarean delivery, and hypoglycemia. Ultrasound is a more accurate way of assessing fetal size and growth by measuring various parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur length (FL). Ultrasound can also detect other factors that may affect fetal growth such as placental function, amniotic fluid volume, umbilical cord blood flow, and fetal anomalies.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Vitamin K will increase erythropoiesis. This is an incorrect statement that confuses vitamin K with erythropoietin. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Vitamin K does not affect erythropoiesis.
Choice B Reason: Vitamin K will enhance bilirubin breakdown. This is an incorrect statement that confuses vitamin K with phototherapy. Phototherapy is a treatment that exposes the newborn's skin to light, which converts bilirubin into water-soluble forms that can be excreted by the liver and kidneys. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that results from the breakdown of red blood cells. High levels of bilirubin can cause jaundice and brain damage in newborns. Vitamin K does not affect bilirubin metabolism.
Choice C Reason: Vitamin K will stop Rh sensitization. This is an incorrect statement that confuses vitamin K with Rh immune globulin. Rh immune globulin is an injection given to Rh-negative mothers who deliver Rh-positive babies, to prevent them from developing antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells in future pregnancies. Rh sensitization is a condition where the mother's immune system atacks the baby's blood cells, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Vitamin K does not affect Rh sensitization.
Choice D Reason: Vitamin K will promote blood clotting ability. This is a correct statement that explains the rationale for administering vitamin K as prophylaxis to newborns. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver. Newborns have low levels of vitamin K at birth due to poor placental transfer and lack of intestinal bacteria that produce vitamin K. Therefore, they are at risk of bleeding disorders such as hemorrhagic disease of the newborn.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.