An older adult client is brought to an urgent care clinic by her paid in-home caregiver for a suspected UTI. The client has bruising to the left side of her face and appears fearful when her caregiver makes sudden movements. Which priority action should the nurse take first?
Notify adult protective services about possible elder abuse by the caregiver.
Have the caregiver stay in the waiting area while the client is brought into a room for assessment.
Contact the caregiver's employment agency to report the suspicion of abuse.
Ask the patient how the injury occurred and observe the caregiver's reaction.
The Correct Answer is B
A. This action is crucial if there is a suspicion of elder abuse, as adult protective services (APS) can investigate the situation thoroughly and take necessary measures to protect the client. However, before making such a notification, it is important to assess the immediate safety of the client and gather preliminary information.
B. This is a prudent initial action to ensure that the client is in a safe environment away from the caregiver, who may be the suspected abuser. It allows the nurse to conduct a private and thorough assessment of the client without the potential influence or intimidation from the caregiver. This step is critical for ensuring the client's safety and obtaining unbiased information.
C. While reporting to the caregiver’s employment agency may be a step in the process, it is not the immediate priority. The primary focus should be on ensuring the client’s safety and assessing the situation before contacting external agencies.
D. While it is important to gather information about how the injury occurred, the immediate priority is to ensure the client's safety and provide an opportunity for a private assessment. The presence of the caregiver during this conversation could influence the client's responses or cause additional stress.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This would indicate adrenal insufficiency, not Cushing syndrome.
B. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and elevated cortisol would indicate Cushing syndrome caused by pituitary adenoma, not adrenal gland hyperplasia.
C. Low adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and elevated cortisol is consistent with Cushing syndrome caused by adrenal gland hyperplasia. In this condition, the adrenal glands produce excess cortisol independently of ACTH stimulation.
D. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and low cortisol would indicate adrenal insufficiency, not Cushing syndrome.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome is not a contagious disease. It is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves. GBS is not spread through respiratory droplets or any other form of infection transmission.
B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes demyelination in the peripheral nervous system, not the central nervous system. The central nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord, whereas the peripheral nervous system comprises the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord.
C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome is not a genetic disorder. It is considered an autoimmune condition that can be triggered by an infection or other environmental factors. While there may be genetic predispositions that affect susceptibility to autoimmune conditions, GBS itself is not classified as a genetic disorder.
D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects the peripheral nervous system. It involves an immune- mediated attack on the peripheral nerves, leading to symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling, and loss of reflexes.
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